GK Room: Let us be aware....

Indian Overseas Bank P.O. Exam 2008

2008-10-17T07:21:00.001-07:00

Indian Overseas Bank PO Exam., 2008 Solved Paper

General Awareness

1. As we all know rise of the ‘BRICs’ has left a vast impact on almost all aspects of the global economy. However, which of the following cannot be called as the direct effect(s) of ‘Rise of the BRICs’ on global/other powerful economy/economies ?
1. Countries like China wish to learn more about outsourcing from India.
2. It has made countries to suffer from Sub-prime Crisis.
3. EURO has become a powerful currency and many non-Euro countries are in ‘Swap Agreement’ with various nations.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

2. As per the reports published in the newspapers/journals how much amount the Govt. of India is planning to infuse in Public Sector Banks to make them competitive and strong globally ?
About—
(A) Rs. 10,000 crore
(B) Rs. 15,000 crore
(C) Rs. 20,000 crore
(D) Rs. 25,000 crore
(E) Rs. 30,000 crore

3. What is the maximum stake the Govt. of India has in any public sector bank at present ?
(A) 40%
(B) 49%
(C) 50%
(D) 64%
(E) 74%

4. Which of the following is not a major highlight of the Union Budget 2008-09 ?
1. A target of Rs. 2•80 lakhs crore is fixed for providing credit to agriculture sector.
2. Limit of the Banking Cash Transaction Tax is raised from present 1% to 1•5%.
3. PAN requirement is not mandatory for financial transactions. Other Ids are also acceptable.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

5. As per the news in major financial newspapers a ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana’ is launched in Delhi and Haryana States for members of unorganized sectors. Under the scheme each family is likely to get the benefit of Rs.………
(A) 15,000
(B) 20,000
(C) 25,000
(D) 30,000
(E) 50,000

6. As proposed in the Union Budget 2008-09 a ‘Risk Capital Fund’ is set up by the Govt. of India. Who amongst the following will maintain and operate that fund ?
(A) NABARD
(B) SIDBI
(C) ECGC
(D) RBI
(E) None of these

7. As per the Economic Survey 2007-08 presented in the Lok Sabha in February 2008, what has been the percentage growth in Bank credit ? About—
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 18%
(D) 21%
(E) 26%

8. As per the budget of the Indian Railways for 2008-09 the operating ratio of the railways has—
(A) Improved only by 0•5%
(B) Decreased by 0•5%
(C) Remained at the same level on which it was in 2007-08
(D) Reached at the level of 81%
(E) Reduced to the level of 63% which was the level of 2000-01

9. The government of India has launched a new scheme for the ‘Girl Child’. What is the name of the scheme ?
(A) Raj Lakshmi
(B) Rani Bitia
(C) Dhan Lakshmi
(D) Aanandita
(E) None of these

10. The President of India recently signed the much-awaited notification for the implementation of the suggestions made by the ‘Delimitation Commission’.
What will be the effect of this notification ?
(A) Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies will be redefined
(B) Candidates from SC/ST categories will get all benefits for another 15 years’ time
(C) The boundaries of the National Capital, New Delhi will be extended further
(D) Operations of the Cooperative Banks and Societies will not be limited to the state of their origin. They will also be like Public Sector Banks
(E) None of these

11. As per the new policy the number of Judges in the Supreme Court would be now—
(A) 21
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 30
(E) 31

12. As per the reports published in the newspapers the banks, particularly public sector banks are tying up with various rating agencies for providing a qualitative assessment of the credit needs of the borrowers. Which amongst the following is/are such credit rating agencies in India ?
1. CARE
2. CRISIL
3. ULIP

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

13. As per the newspaper reports the RBI is planning to introduce ‘Plastic Currency Notes’. What is/are the benefits of ‘Plastic Notes’ ?
1. Their Shelf life will be longer.
2. It will replace plastic money or credit, debit cards which are giving birth to many fraudulent practices.
3. Printing will be cheaper.

(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

14. ‘Sub Prime Lending’ is a term applied to the loans made to—
(A) Those borrowers who do not have a good credit history
(B) Those who wish to take loan against the mortgage of tangible assets
(C) Those who have a good credit history and are known to bank since 10 years
(D) Those borrowers who are most preferred customers of the Bank
(E) None of these

15. As per the reports published in various journals and newspapers the ‘small borrowers’ in rural areas still prefer to take informal route for their credit needs. Which of the following is the ‘informal route’ of credit in financial sector ?
(A) Credit cards
(B) Loan against gold from financial institute
(C) Debit cards
(D) Money lender
(E) None of these

16. The Planning Commission of India has set up a 12 member committee on financial sector reforms. Who is the Chairman of the Committee ?
(A) Janki Raman
(B) Raghuram Rajan
(C) Rakesh Mohan
(D) K. V. Kamath
(E) None of these

17. Basel-II norms are associated with which of the following aspects of the banking industry ?
(A) Risk management
(B) Manpower planning
(C) Retirement benefits for the employees
(D) Corporate Governance
(E) None of these

18. What is meant by ‘Underwriting’ the term frequently used in financial sector ?
(A) Under valuation of the assets
(B) The Act of taking on a risk for a fee
(C) Giving a Guarantee that a loan will not become a bad loan
(D) The act of permission to float an IPO
(E) None of these

19. The government of India recently constituted the New Finance Commission (13th). What are its major functions ? To decide—
1. The salary structure of the employees of the Central Government.
2. The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between states and Central Govt.
3. Rate of Income Tax and other taxes collected by the Union Govt.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

20. Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian cricket team which registered its victory in tri-series ODI matches against Australia played in March 2008 ?
(A) M.S. Dhoni
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Saurav Ganguly
(E) Sachin Tendulkar

21. Mr. Nicolas Sarkozy who was the chief guest during the Republic Day Function 2008 is the—
(A) President of Brazil
(B) Prime Minister of Brazil
(C) President of France
(D) Prime Minister of France
(E) Foreign Secretary of USA

22. Who amongst the following has taken over as the President of Serbia after the General elections held there in February 2008 ?
(A) Boris Tadic
(B) Tomislav Nicolic
(C) Samak Sundaravej
(D) Novak Djokovic
(E) None of these

23. Indra K. Nooyi who was elected as the Chairperson of the US-India Business Council is the CEO of which of the following Companies ?
(A) Pepsi Co.
(B) Infosys
(C) Tata Consultancy Services
(D) NIIT
(E) None of these

24. Maria Sharapova won the Australian Open 2008 Women’s singles by defeating—
(A) Shahar Peer
(B) Kateryna Bondarenko
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) Ana Ivanovic

25. Saina Nehwal won the Seniors’ Championship match of which of the following games held in Goa in January 2008 ?
(A) Golf
(B) Tennis
(C) Table tennis
(D) Archery
(E) Badminton

26. As per the news published in some newspapers magazines two PSUs National Thermal Power Corporation and Coal India Ltd. are going to float a joint venture ‘SPV’. What is the full form of ‘SPV’ ?
(A) Small Power Venture
(B) Special Purpose Vehicle
(C) Special Power Venture
(D) Small Purpose Vehicle
(E) None of these

27. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) recently agreed to allow foreign direct investment in the field of mobile television services. Upto what extent FDI is allowed in this field ?
(A) 50%
(B) 60%
(C) 64%
(D) 70%
(E) 74%

28. As per the performance assessment data released by the Economic Advisory Council (EAC) in January 2008. Which of the following sectors registered a growth of 3•6 per cent ?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Banking Sector
(C) Tourism Sector
(D) Aviation Services Sector
(E) None of these

29. Which of the following is the name of very violent and serious types of winds which bring lot of disaster ?
(A) Trade winds
(B) Hurricane
(C) Cirrus
(D) Stratus
(E) None of these

30. The Global Employment Trends Report 2008 published by the International Labour Organization has indicated that there may be increase in global unemployment. What according to them is/are the major reasons of this possibility ?
1. Turmoil in Credit Markets all over the world.
2. Rise in oil prices in international market.
3. Civil unrest in some under and undeveloped nations.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these

31. As we have noticed many banks of Indian origin are opening offices/branches in foreign countries. Why is this trend emerging at a very fast pace ?
1. These Banks wish to provide banking facilities to foreigners as banking facilities are not plenty in many foreign countries. India wants to take an advantage of the situation.
2. These banks wish to help Indian firms to acquire funds at internationally competitive rates.
3. These banks wish to promote trade and investment between India and other countries.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 2 and 3

32. Many economists, bankers and researchers in India often advocate that banks should equip themselves for new challenges. These challenges are in which of the following shapes/forms ?
1. As Indian economy is getting increasingly integrated with the rest of the world the demand of the Corporate banking is likely to change in terms of size, composition of services and also the quality.
2. The growing foreign trade in India will have to be financed by the local banks.
3. Foreigners are habitual of the comforts provided by the technology. India has to do a lot in this reference.

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these

33. As per the reports published in the newspapers Indian Rupee is now fully accepted in Asian countries like, Singapore, Hong Kong, Malaysia etc. What does it really mean ?
1. Anybody from Asian country can purchase Indian Rupee and keep it in his/her bank account in his/her country without any restrictions.
2. Now people in these nations are not required to go for a double conversion first in dollar and then in rupee.
3. People travelling European/Asian countries can make their payments in rupee anywhere without any problem.

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these

34. Which of the following is not a banking/finance related term ?
(A) Credit wrap
(B) EMI
(C) Held to Maturity
(D) Exposure limit
(E) Diffusion

35. Very often we read about the Doha Ministerial Conference 2001 in reference to WTO negotiations. What were the major issues over which nations were of different opinions ?
1. Providing subsidy to agriculture.
2. Export of patented drugs/medicines by developed nations.
3. Restriction on natural movement of people from one nation to other.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these

36. The Technology Mission on Cotton was launched during Xth plan. The scheme was designed to get increase in production of cotton by which of the following levels by the end of the plan ?
(A) 100 lakh bales
(B) 150 lakh bales
(C) 175 lakh bales
(D) 200 lakh bales
(E) None of these

37. A National Development Fund was created by the Government of India a few years ago. What was the purpose of the fund ?
1. Boost investment in social sector projects to promote education, healthcare and
employment.
2. Capital investments in selected profitable PSEs to yield adequate returns.
3. To fund revision in pay structure of Central Government employees.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these

38. Olympic 2008 are scheduled to be held in—
(A) Paris
(B) Tokyo
(C) London
(D) Moscow
(E) None of these

39. The general elections took place in which of the following countries in March 2008 ?
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Myanmar
(E) Sri Lanka

40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Economic Nightmare of India’ ?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) K. Rajeshwar Rao
(C) Charan Singh
(D) Jyoti Basu
(E) None of these

41. As per the targets for 11th plan educated unemployment is to be reduced to which of the following levels ?
(A) 5%
(B) 6%
(C) 7%
(D) 8%
(E) 9%

42. ‘Long Walk’ to Freedom’ is a book written by—
(A) Sonia Gandhi
(B) L. K. Advani
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Benazir Bhutto
(E) Nawaz Sheriff

43. India recently signed a pact with which of the following countries on solving the problems of Indian labour in that country ?
(A) Iran
(B) UAE
(C) Malaysia
(D) Kuwait
(E) None of these

44. Which of the following countries is trying to launch a Satellite to study the sun ?
(A) USA
(B) India
(C) Russia
(D) China
(E) None of these

45. Jang Hyun Jong who was adjudged as the ‘Asian Hockey Player of the year’ is from—
(A) China
(B) Singapore
(C) South Korea
(D) India
(E) None of these

46. Who amongst the following is the winner of Padma Vibhushan Awards given away recently ?
(A) Rahul Gandhi
(B) Priya Dutt
(C) Vinod Dua
(D) Ratan Tata
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following films was adjudged ‘Best Film’ in 14th Star Screen Awards given away in January 2008 ?
(A) Om Shanti Om
(B) Guru
(C) Taare Zameen Par
(D) Jab We Met
(E) Chak De India

48. A meeting of the European Leaders was held in January 2008 at which of the following places to discuss ‘Global Economic Turmoil’ ?
(A) London
(B) New Delhi
(C) New York
(D) Tokyo
(E) Milan

49. Castro Sibling is the new President of—
(A) Romania
(B) Cuba
(C) Israel
(D) Venezuela
(E) None of these

50. Kosovo declared itself independent from which of the following countries ?
(A) Ukraine
(B) Croatia
(C) Serbia
(D) Russia
(E) None of these

Andhra Bank P.O. Exam 2008

2008-10-14T04:19:00.000-07:00

Andhra Bank Probationary Officer (Bank P.O.) Examination 2008
[Held on 14-09-2008]

General Awareness Paper

1. Who amongst the following does not belong to political party which is normally referred as left front?
(A) Prakash Karat
(B) A.B.Bardhan
(C) D.Raju
(D) T.J.Chandrachoodan
(E) M.Veerappa Moily

2. Sujat and Balsara villages were in news recently as breach in main Narmada Canal made them flooded. Both these villages are in which of the following States?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these

3. As per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) the Indian Economy will grow at which of the following rates in 2008 ?
(A) 7%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8%
(D) 8.5%
(E) None of these

4. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommendations of the committee setup on Financial Sector Reforms under the Chairmanship of Raghuram G.Rajan ?
(1) Give more freedoms to banks to setup branches and ATMS anywhere
(2) Setup an office of financial ombudsmen
(3) All deposits taking institutions should be free from the supervision of the RBI

(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) Only 2 & 3

5. The Govt. of which of the following States has formed a Fisherman Debt Commission and a moratorium has been placed on proceedings relating to all debts incured by poor fisherman from banks and cooperatives ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Keral
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these

6. Federal Reserves is the Central Bank of ___
(A) Britain
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Japan
(D) Canada
(E) China

7. Which of the following was the issue over which one section of the UPA withdrew its support and Union Govt. headed by Dr. Man Mohan Singh was required to prove its majority in the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Inflation , which was on a rise consistently for some time
(2) Reservations of Gurjarrs in Govt. jobs
(3) Nuclear deal with USA

(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) Only 2 & 3

8. As a gesture to promote denuclearization and also to end nuclear arms programme the cooling tower of a nuclear complex situated in "Youngbyon" was demolished recently. This nuclear complex is in which of the following countries ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Iran
(C) China
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these

9. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) keeps on modifying various rates / ratios to keep the flow of liquidity in the market in a balanced situation . Which of the following rates/ratios/indexes is NOT directly controlled by the RBI ?
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(B) Bank Rate
(C) Repo Rate
(D) Reserve Repo Rate
(E) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)

10. China has signed an agreement with which of the following countries, which will help both the parties to make the East China Sea "a sea of peace, co-operation and friendship" ?
(A) North Korea
(B) South Korea
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
(E) All of these

11. The former President of which of the following countries has taken over as the Prime Minister of the nation in May 2008 ?
(A) Venezuela
(B) Russia
(C) Uganda
(D) Tanzania
(E) None of these

12. Which of the following companies of Indian origin has been placed amongst the World's seven Best Firms in Financial Sector ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Bajaj Capitals
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) None of these

13. Michel Sleiman has taken over as the president of ____
(A) Lebanon
(B) Cuba
(C) Yemen
(D) Zambia
(E) Turkey

14. Which of the following is/are true about the "Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana" to be launched in the near future ?
(1) This scheme is to develop those villages where SC/ST population is in prominence
(2) About 70,000 villages are identified for the same
(3) A special fund of Rs.7,000 Crore is setup for the scheme

(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these

15. Which of the following countries had decided to come out of the membership of OPEC ?
(A) Iran
(B) Indonesia
(C) Kuwait
(D) Saudi Arabia
(E) None Of these

16. Many Banks have adopted / launched "Core Banking Solution (CBS)" .Core Banking Solution is _______
(A) a marketing strategy adopted by the Banks
(B) a new type of ATM useful for rural population
(C) a delivery channel for quick and fast delivery
(D) a new product launched to help senior citizens only as they are not able to visit branches / ATMs frequently
(E) None of these

17. As per the figures released recently, the rate of growth of agriculture during 2007-08 has been at the level of approximately ______
(A) 2.5 %
(B) 3 %
(C) 4.5 %
(D) 5 %
(E) 6.33 %

18. The import of which of the following has raised the Current Account Deficit of India by about 77 % ?
(A) Oil
(B) Gas
(C) Sugar
(D) Foodgrain
(E) None of these

19. The National e- Governance plan was launched by the Govt. of India in the year 2006 with which of the following intentions/objectives ?
(1) To provide qualitative service of Govt. business to the citizens of India
(2) To promote IT sector in India so that trained IT personnel do not go out of the country for jobs
(3) To keep a vigil on the business transaction of Indian population to avoid illegal transactions

(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these

20. As per the figure released recently what was the per capita income at Current Price in the year 2007-08 in India? About ____
(A) Rs. 20,000/-
(B) Rs. 25,000/-
(C) Rs. 23,000/-
(D) Rs. 33,000/-
(E) Rs. 48,000/-

21. Ana Ivanovic won the "French Open Women's Singles" of Lawn Tennis after defeating _______
(A) Katrina Srebtnik
(B) Dinara Safina
(C) Virginia Ruano Pascual
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) None of these

22. The World Environment Day is celebrated on which of the following days?
(A) 5TH October
(B) 5TH August
(C) 5TH July
(D) 5TH June
(E) None of these

23. Who amongst the following is included in the list of "Biggest Brains in Business"?
(A) L. N. Mittal
(B) Anil Ambani
(C) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(D) Mukesh Ambani
(E) Ratan Tata

24. Which of the following cannot be called as a value Added service offered by a Bank?
(A) Special accounts for poor sections of the society
(B) Accident insurance cover
(C) Instant Credits of Outstation Cheques
(D) Free cheque book
(E) All are value Added services

25. Which of the following is the total amount Government of India has earmarked for Agriculture Debt Waiver and Debt Relief Scheme 2008 ?
(A) Rs.10,000 Crore
(B) Rs.25,000 Crore
(C) Rs.45,000 Crore
(D) Rs.72,000 Crore
(E) Rs.83,000 Crore

26. Which of the following States of India was recognized as the Best e- Governed State in 2007 ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Goa
(E) Delhi

27. Daiichi Sanyo which has taken a major stake in India's Pharma company Ranbaxy is a firm based in ____
(A) China
(B) South Korea
(C) North Korea
(D) Japan
(E) USA

28. Which of the following airlines became the first Indian Based Airlines to operate flight to China?
(A) Indian
(B) Air India
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Jet Airways
(E) None of these

29. Which of the following meets / summit was organized in Damascus in March 2008 ?
(A) Arab League Summit
(B) G-8 Summit
(C) G-15 Summit
(D) Meeting of trade Minister of WTO members
(E) None of these

30. India recently signed a Bilateral Investment Promotion Agreement (BIPA) with which of the following countries ?
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Nepal
(D) Bhutan
(E) Myanmar

31. Opening the Saving Bank Account of a minor girl will be called as which of the following in Banking terminology ?
(A) Retail Banking
(B) Merchant Banking
(C) Institutional Banking
(D) Social Banking
(E) Corporate Banking

32. Which of the following terms NOT used in Banking Sector?
(A) SLR
(B) NPA
(C) Credit Rating
(D) Fixed
(E) PURA

33. Banking Sector will fall under which of the following sectors?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Service Sector
(C) Manufacturing
(D) Industrial Sector
(E) None of these

34. An account in which trading of shares in their electronic form is done is known as _____
(A) Demat Account
(B) NRI Account
(C) NRIO Account
(D) Current Account
(E) None of these

35. Which of the following is NOT a measure of the Risk Management in Banks ?
(A) CRR
(B) RTGS
(C) SLR
(D) Deposit Insurance
(E) All are the measures of risk management

36. The foreign Direct Investment this year in India reached to the level of about US $ 3.74 billion. In comparison to last years investment the increase is About _______
(A) 50 %
(B) 100%
(C) 125 %
(D) 200 %
(E) 250 %

37. The duration of which of the following Policies / Schemes is from 2004-2009 ?
(A) Foreign Trade Policy
(B) 11th Five Year Plan
(C) 10th Five Year Plan
(D) National Rural Guarantee Act
(E) None of these

38. Which of the following test is conducted to know if a sportsman has taken any performance enhancing drugs ?
(A) EEG
(B) Narco Test
(C) ELISA Test
(D) Mind mapping
(E) DOPE TEST

39. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the IIFA Awards 2008 as Best Actress?
(A) Shamita Shetty
(B) Rani Mukherjee
(C) Priyanka Chopra
(D) Konkana Sen
(E) Kareena Kapoor

40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book "Toward a Hunger Free World" ?
(A) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
(B) Ashok Lahiri
(C) Amartya Sen
(D) M.S.Swaminathan
(E) None of these

41. Which of the following awards is given in the field of cinema?
(A) Kalidas Samman
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Arjun Award
(D) Kalinga Award
(E) Dada Sahab Phalke Award

42. Sudan recently cut its ralations with which of the following countries following an attack on Khartoum by a Darfur Rebel Group?
(A) Chad
(B) Uganda
(C) Libya
(D) Lebanon
(E) None of these

43. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the Children's Film Society?
(A) Kareena Kapoor
(B) Jaya Bachchan
(C) Shabana Azmi
(D) Sridevi
(E) None of these

44. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of an autonomous organization under Ministry of Rural Development ?
(A) NIMI
(B) IGNOU
(C) CAPART
(D) NPCIL
(E) ICRP

45. World's largest oil reserves (about 2/3rd) are located in ____
(A) Russia
(B) Middle East
(C) Africa
(D) Europe
(E) Canada

46. Who amongst the following is the author of "Animal People" which was adjudged as the Best Book of the Year?
(A) V.S.Naipaul
(B) Indra Sinha
(C) William Darlymple
(D) Bill Clinton
(E) John Banville

47. What is India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank ?
(A) 55th
(B) 80th
(C) 100th
(D) 120th
(E) None of these

48. Which of the following term related with the game of Cricket ?
(A) Grand Slam
(B) Half Nelson
(C) Ashes
(D) Screen
(E) Love

49. The Russian President visited China in May 2008 and signed a deal for the security of which of the following?
(A) Global Energy
(B) China Sea
(C) Intellectual Property Rights of the Chinese Scientists
(D) Nuclear installation in China
(E) None of these

50. Which of the following Programmes / Schemes of the Govt. of India is NOT directly related with agriculture activities ?
(A) Drought Prone Areas Programmes (DPAP)
(B) Promotion of Integrated Pest Management (IPM)
(C) Integrated Westlands Development Programme (IWDP)
(D) ANNAPURNA
(E) Desert Development Programme (DDP)

Chronology: Indian National Movement

2008-10-08T22:58:00.000-07:00

Timeline (Chronology): Indian National Movement

1857	First War of Indian Independence
1858	British crown takes over the Indian Government, End of East India Company Rule
1861	Birth of Rabindra Nath Tagore
1885	Formation of Indian National Congress
1905	Partition of Bengal announced which came in force from October 16, 1906
1906, Dec 31	Muslim League founded at Decca
1908, April 30	Khudiram Bose executed
1908, July 22	Tilak sentenced to six years on charges of sedition
1909, May 21	Minto-Morley Reforms of Indian Councils Act, 1909
1911	The coronation or Delhi Durbar held at Delhi in which the Partition of Bengal is cancelled
1912	Delhi becomes the new capital of India
1912, Dec 23	Bomb thrown on Lord Hardinge on his state entry into Delhi
1914, Nov 1	Ghadar Party formed at San Francisco
1914, June 16	Bal Gangadhar Tilak released from jail
1914, Aug 4	Outbreak of First World War
1914, Sept 29	Komagatamaur ship reaches Budge (Calcutta Port)
1915, Jan 9	Mahatma Gandhi arrives in India
1915, Feb 19	Death of Gopal Krishan Gokhle
1916, April 28	B.G. Tilak founds Indian Home Rule League with it headquarters at Poona
1916, Sept 25	Another Home Rule League started by Annie Besant
1917, April	Mahatma Gandhi launches the Champaran campaign in Bihar to focus attention on the grievances of Indigo farmers
1917, Aug 20	The Secretary of State for India, Montague, declares that the goal of the British government in India is the introduction of Responsible Government
1918	Beginning of trade union movement in India
1918, April	Rowlatt (Sedition) Committee submits its reports. Rowlatt Bill introduced on Feb 16, 1919
1919, April 13	Jalianwala Bagh Massacre
1919, Dec 5	The House of Commons passes the Montague Chelmsford Reforms or the Government of India Act, 1919. The new reforms under this Act come into force in 1921
1920	First meeting of the All Indian Trade Union Congress (under Narain Malhar Joshi)
1920, Dec	The Indian National Congress (INC) adopts the Non-Cooperation Resolution
1920-22	Non-Cooperation Movement, suspended on Feb 12, 1922 after the violent incidents at Chauri Chaura on Feb 5, 1922
1922, Aug	Moplah rebellion on the Malabar coast
1923, Jan 1	Swarajist Party formed by Motilal Nehru and others
1924	The Communist Party of India starts its activities at Kanpur
1925, Aug	Kakori Train Conspiracy Case
1927, Nov 8	The British Prime Minister announces the appointment of the Simon Commission to suggest future constitutional reforms in India, Simon Commission arrives in Bombay on Feb 3, 1928 and all-India hartal, Lala Lajpat Rai assaulted by Police in Lahore
1928	Nehru Report recommends principles for the new Constitution of India. All Parties conference considers the Nehru Report, Aug 28-31, 1928
1928, Nov 17	Death of Lala Lajpat Rai
1929	Sarda Act passed prohibiting marriage of girls below 14 and boys below 18 years of age with effect from 1930
1929, March 9	All-Parties Muslim Conference formulates the "Fourteen Points" under the leadership of Jinnah
1929, April 8	Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt throw bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly
1929, Oct 31	Lord Irwin's announcement that the goal of British policy in India was the grant of the Dominion status
1929, Dec 31	The Lahore session of the INC adopts the goal of complete independence- Poorna Swaraj for India, Jawaharlal Nehru hoists the tricolour of Indian Independence on the banks of the Ravi at Lahore
1930, Jan 26	First Independence Day observed
1930, Feb 14	The Working Committee of the INC meets at Sabarmati and passes the Civil Disobedience resolution
1930, March 12	Mahatma Gandhi launches the Civil Disobedience movement with his epic Dandi March (March 12 to April 6), First Phase of Civil Disobedience Movement: March 12, 1930 to March 5, 1931
1930, Nov 30	First Round Table Conference begins in London to consider the report of the Simon Commission
1931, March 5	Gandhi-Irwin pact signed, Civil Disobedience movement suspended
1931, March 23	Bhagat Singh, Sukh Dev and Rajguru executed
1931, Sept 7	Second Round Table Conference
1931, Dec 28	Mahatma Gandhi returns from London after the deadlock in Second Round Table Conference. Launches Civil Disobedience Movement. Indian National Congress (INC) declared illegal
1932, Jan 4	Mahatma Gandhi arrested and imprisoned without trial
1932, Aug 16	British Prime Minister Ramsay Macdonald announces the infamous "Communal Award"
1932, Sept 20	Mahatma Gandhi begins his epic "Fast unto Death" in jail against the Communal Award and ends the fast on Sept 26 after the Poona Pact
1932, Nov 17	The Third Round Table Conference begins in London (Nov 17 to Dec 24)
1933, May 9	Mahatma Gandhi released from prison as he begins fast for self-purification. INC suspends Civil Disobedience Movement but authorises Satyagraha by individuals
1934	Mahatma Gandhi withdraws from active politics and devotes himself to "Constructive Programmes" (1934-39)
1935, Aug 4	The Government of India Act, 1935 passed
1937	Elections held in India under the Act of 1935 (Feb 1937). The INC contests election and forms ministries in several provinces (July 1937)
1938, Feb 19-20	Haripura session of Indian National Congress (INC). Subhash Chandra Bose elected Congress president
1939, March 10-12	Tripuri session of the INC
1939, April	Subhash Chandra Bose resigns as the president of the INC
1939, Sept 3	Second World War (September 1). Great Britain declares war on Germany; the Viceroy declares that India too is at war
1939, Oct 27 - Nov 5	The Congress ministries in the provinces resign in protest against the war policy of the British government
1939, Dec 22	The Muslim League observes the resignation of the Congress ministries as "Deliverance Day"
1940, March	Lahore session of the Muslim League passes the Pakistan Resolution
1940, Aug 10	Viceroy Linlithgow announces August Offer
1940, Aug 18-22	Congress Working Committee rejects the "August Offer"
1940, Oct 17	Congress launches Individual Satyagraha Movement
1941, Jan 17	Subhash Chandra Bose escapes from India; arrives in Berlin (March 28)
1942, March 11	Churchill announces the Cripps Mission
1942, Aug 7-8	The Indian National Congress (INC) meets in Bombay; adopts "Quit India" resolution
1942, Aug 9	Mahatma Gandhi and other Congress leaders arrested
1942, Aug 11	Quit India movement begins; the Great August Uprising
1942, Sept 1	Subhash Chandra Bose establish the Indian National Army "Azad Hind Fauz"
1943, Oct 21	Subhash Chandra Bose proclaims the formation of the Provincial Government of Free India
1943, Dec	Karachi session of the Muslim League adopts the slogan "Divide and Quit"
1944, Jan 25	Wavell calls Simla Conference in a bid to form the Executive Council of Indian political leaders
1946, Feb 18	Mutiny of the Indian naval ratings in Bombay
1946, March 15	British Prime Minister Attlee announces Cabinet Mission to propose new solution to the Indian deadlock; Cabinet Mission arrives in New Delhi (March 14); issues proposal (May 16)
1946, July 6	Jawaharlal Nehru takes over as Congress president
1946, Aug 6	Wavell invites Nehru to form an interim government; Interim Government takes office (Sept 2)
1946, Dec 9	First session of Constituent Assembly of India starts. Muslim League boycotts it
1947, Feb 20	British Prime Minister Attlee declares that the British government would leave India not later than June, 1948
1947, March 24	Lord Mountbatten, the last British Viceroy and Governor-General of India sworn in (March 24, 1947 to June 21, 1948)
1947, June 3	Mountbatten Plan for the partition of India and the announcement (June 4) that transfer of power will take place on August 15
1947, Aug 15	India becomes independent.

Books and Authors

2008-10-08T02:31:00.000-07:00

Books and Authors

A
A Bend in the River - V.S. Naipaul
A Brief History of Time – Stephen Hawking
A China Passage – John Kenneth Galbraith
Accidental Death of an Anarchist – Dario Fo
A Clockwork Orange – Anthony Burgess
A Critique of Pure Reason – Immanuel Kant
A Doll’s House – Ibsen
A Farewell to Arms – Ernest Hemingway
A Fine Balance – Rohinton Mistry
A Handful of Dust – Evelyn Waugh
A House for Mr. Biswas – V. S. Naipaul
A Million Mutinies Now – V.S. Naipaul
A Midsummer Night’s Dream – William Shakespeare
A Passage to England – Nirad S. Choudhari
A Passage to India – E.M. Foster
A Prisoner’s Scrapbook – L.K. Adwani
A Sense of Time - H.S. Vatsyayan
A Strange and Sublime Address – Amit Chaudhary
A Streetcar Named Desire – Tennesse Williams
A Study of History – Arnold J. Toynbee
A Suitable Boy – Vikram Seth
A Tale of Two Cities – Charles Dickens
A Thousand Days – Arthur M. Schiesinger
A Thousand Suns – Dominique Lappierre
A Village by the Sea – Anita Desai
A Voice for Freedom – Nayantara Sehgal
A Week with Gandhi – Louis Fischer
A Woman’s Life – Guy de Maupassant
Absolute Power – David Baldacci
Adam Bede – George Eliot
Adonis – P.B. Shelley
Adventure of Tom Sawyer – Mark Twain
Afternoon Raag – Amit Chaudhary
Agni Veena – Kazi Nazrul Islam
Akbarnama – Abul Fazal
Alice in Wonderland – Lewis Carroll
All Quiet on the Western Front – Erick Maria Remarque
All the King’s Men – Robert Penn Warren
All the President’s Men – Carl Bernstein and Bob Woodward
All Things Bright and Beautiful – James Herriot
All’s Well that Ends Well – William Shakespeare
Amar Kosh – Amar Singh
An American Dilemma – Gunnar Myrdal
An American Tragedy – Theodore Dreiser
An Area of Darkness – V.S. Naipaul
An Autobiography – Jawaharlal Nehru
An Equal Music – Vikram Seth
An Idealist View of Life – Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Anandmath – Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
And Quiet Flows the Don – Mikhail Sholokhov
Angels in America – Tony Kushner
Animal Form – George Orwell
Anna Karenina – Leo Tolstoy
Antony and Cleopatra – William Shakespeare
Ape and Essence – Aldous Huxley
Around the World in Eighty Days – Jules Verne
Arrowsmith – Sinclair Lewis
As You Like It – William Shakespeare
Asia and Western Dominance – K. M. Panikkar
Asina Drama – Gunnar Myrdal
August 1914 – Alexander Solzhenitsyn
Autobiography of an Unknown Indian – Nirad S. Choudhari

B
Babbit - Sinclair Lewis
Back to Methuselah - George Bernard Shaw
Bndicoot Run - Manohar Malgaonkar
Beginning of the Beginning – Bhagwan Sri Rajneesh
Being Digital - Nicholas Negroponte
Beloved – Toni Morrison
Ben Hur – Lewis Wallace
Beyond the Horizon – Eugene O’Neill
Bharat Bharati – Maithili Sharan Gupt
Biographia Literaria – Samuel Taylor Coleridge
Black Holes and Baby Universes – Stephen Hawking
Blood, Brain and Beer – David Ogilvy
Bonfire of the Vanities – Tom Wolfe
Born Free – Joy Adamson
Brave New World – Aldous Huxley
Bread, Beauty and Revolution – Khwaja Ahmad Abbas
Breakfast at Tiffany’s – Truman Capote
Breakthrough – Gen. Moshe Dayan
Bubble, The – Mulk Raj Anand
Business @ Speed of Thought – Bill Gates
Byzantium – W.B. Yeats

C
Cadillac Desert – Marc Reisner
Caesar and Cleopatra – George Bernard Shaw
Candida – George Bernard Shaw
Candide – Voltaire
Catch-22 – Joseph Heller
Catcher in the Rye – J.D. Salinger
Centennial – James A. Michener
Chemmeen – Thakazhi Sivasankara Pillai
Cherry Orchard – Anton Chekhov
Chidambara – Sumitranandan Pant
Childe Harold’s Pilgrimage – Lord Byron
Chitra – Rabindra Nath Tagore
Choma’s Drum – K. Sivaram Karanth
Chronicle of a Death Foretoid – Gabriel Garcia Marquez
Circle of Reason – Amitav Ghosh
Circles of Silence – Preeti Singh
City of Joy – Dominique Lapierre
City of Djinns – William Dairymple
Comedy of Errors – William Shakespeare
Coming of Age in Samoa – Margaret Mead
Common Sense – Thomas Paine
Communist Manifesto – Karl Marx
Confessions – J.J. Rousseau
Confessions of an English Opium Eater – Thomas De Quincey
Confidential Clerk – T.S. Eliot
Conquest of Self – Mahatma Gandhi
Coolie – Mulk Raj Anand
Count of Monte Cristo – Alexander Dumas
Coverly Papers – Joseph Addison
Creation – Gore Vidal
Crescent Moon – Rabindra Nath Tagore
Crime and Punishment – Feodor Dostoyevsky
Crisis into Chaos – E.M.S. Namboodiripad
Cry, the Beloved Country – Alan Paton

D
Darkness at Noon – Arthur Koestler
Darkness Visible – William Styron
Das Kapital – Karl Marx
David Copperfield – Charles Dickens
Days of Grace – Arthur Ashe and Arnold Ram Prasad
Death in Venice – Thomas Mann
Death of a City – Amrita Pritam
Death of a Patriot – R.E. Harrington
Death of a Salesman – Arthur Miller
Debacle – Emile Zola
Decameron – Giovanni Boccaccio
Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire – Edward Gibbon
Descent of Man – Charles Darwin
Deserted Village – Oliver Goldsmith
Devdas – Sharat Chandra Chatterjee
Dilemma of Our Time – Harold Joseph Laski
Diplomacy – Henry Kissinger
Discovery of India – Jawaharlal Nehru
Distant Drums – Manohar Malgaonkar
Divine Comedy – Dante Alighieri
Divine Life – Swami Sivananda
Doctor Zhivago – Boris Pasternak
Doctor’s Dilemma – George Bernard Shaw
Don Juan – Lord Byron
Don Quixote – Miguel de Cervantes
Dr. Jkyll and Mr. Hyde – Robert Louis Stevenson
Durgesh Nandini – Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Down Under – Bill Bryson
Dust to Dust – Tami Hoag

E
Earth – Emile Zola
Eminent Victorians – Lytton Strachey
Emma – Jane Austen
Ends and Means – Aldous Huxley
English August – Upamanyu Chatterjee
Envoy to Nehru – Escott Reid
Essays of Elia – Charles Lamp
Essays on Gita – Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
Eternal Himalayas – Major H.P.S. Ahluwalia
Ethics for New Millennium – The Dalai Lama
Expandin Universe – Arthur Stanley Eddington

F
Faces of Everest – Major H.P.S. Ahluwalia
Family Matters – Rohinton Mistry
Family Reunion – T.S. Eliot
Far from the Madding Crowd – Thomas Hardy
Farewell the Trumpets – James Morris
Farewell to Arms – Ernest Hemingway
Fasting Feasting – Anita Desai
Father and Sons – Ivan Turgenev
Faust – J.W. Goeth
Final Days, The – Bob Woodward and Carl Bernstein
First Circle – Alexander Solzhenitsyn
For Whom the Bell Tolls – Ernest Hemingway
Forsyth Saga – John Galsworthy
Fortynine Days – Amrita Pritam
Freedom at Midnight – Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre
French Revolution – Thomas Carlyle
Friends and Foes – Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
From Here to Eternity – James Jones

G
Ganadevta – Tara Shankar Bandopadhyaya
Gandhi and Stalin – Louis Fisher
Gardener – Rabindra Nath Tagore
Gathering Storm – Winston Churchill
Ghasiram Kotwal – Vijay Tendulkar
Gitanjali – Rabindra Nath Tagore
Glimpes of World History – Jawaharlal Nehru
Godan – Prem Chand
Golden Threshold – Sarojini Naidu
Gone With the Wind – Margaret Mitchell
Good Earth – Pearl S. Buck
Good Times, Bad Times – Harold Evans
Goodby, Mr. Chips – James Hilton
Grammar of Politics – Harold Joseph Laski
Great Expectations – Charles Dickens
Guide – R. K. Narayan
Gulag Archipelago – Alexander Solzhenitsyn
Gulliver’s Travels – Janathan Swift
Gypsi Masala – Preeti Nair

H
Half a Life – V.S. Naipaul
Hamlet – William Shakespeare
Harvest – Manjula Padmanabhan
Harry Potter and the Order of the Phoenix – J. K. Rowling
Harry Potter and the Goblet of Fire – J. K. Rowling
Heat and Dust – Ruth Prawer Jhabwala
Heri Apparent – Dr. Karan Singh
Heritage – Anthony West
Heroes and Hero Worship – Thomas Carlyle
Himalayan Blunder – Brigadier J.P. Dalvi
Hindu View of Life – Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Hinduism – Nirad S. Choudhari
Homage to Catalonia – George Orwell
How to Know God – Deepak Chopra
Hullabaloo in a Guava Orchard – Kiran Desai
Human Factor – Graham Green
Hunchback of Notre Dame – Victor Hugo
Hungry Stones – Rabindra Nath Tagore

I
Iacocca – Lee Iacocca
Ideas and Opinions – Albert Einstein
I Follow the Mahatma – K.M. Munshi
Idols – Sunil Gavaskar
If I am Assassinated – Z.A. Bhutto
If Only – Geri Halliwell
Ignited Minds – A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
In Evil Hour – Gabriel Garcia Marques
In Memoriam – Alfred Lord Tennyson
In Search of Gandhi – Richard Attenborough
India in the New Millennium – Dr. P.C. Alexander
India Changes – Taya Zinkin
India Discovered – John Keay
India Divided – Rajendra Prasad
Indian Emerging Power – Stephen Philip Cohen
India- Another Millennium – Romila Thapar
India- Unbound – Gurcharan Das
India of Our Dreams – M.V. Kamath
India Remembered – Percival and Margaret Spear
India Wins Freedom – Abul Kalam Azad
India’s Priceless Heritage – N.A. Palkiwala
Indian Philosophy – Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Indira: The Life of Indira Nehru Gandhi – Katherine Frank
Inscrutable Americans – Anurag Mathur
Inside Asia, Inside Europe, Inside Africa etc – John Gunther
Interpreter of Maladies – Jhumpa Lahiri
Intimacy – Jean Paul Sartre
Invisible Man – H.G. Wells
Is Paris Burning – Larry Collins & Dominique Lapierre
Isabella – John Keats
Islamic Bomb – Stev Weissman & Herbert Krouney
It was Five Past Midnight in Bhopal – Dominique Lapierre and Javier Moro
Ivanhoe – Sir Walter Swatt

J
Jai Somnath – K.M. Munshi
Jane Eyre – Charlotte Bronte
Jean Christopher – Romain Rolland
Julius Caeser – William Shakespeare
Jungle Book – Rudyard Kipling
Junglee Girl – Ginu Kamani
Jurassic Park – Michael Crichton

K
Kalpana Chawla- A Life – Anil Padmanabhan
Kamasutra – Vatsyayana
Kane and Abel – Jeffrey Archer
Kanthapura – Raja Rao
Kashmir : A Tragedy of Errors – Tavleen Singh
Kayar – Thakazhi Sivasankara Pillai
Kenilworth – Sir Walter Scott
Kidnapped – Robert Louis Stevenson
Kim – Rudyard Kipling
King Lear – William Shakespeare
Kubla Khan – Samuel Taylor Coleridge

L
Ladies Coupe - Anita Nair
La Peste – Albert Camus
Lady Chatterley’s Lover – D. H. Lawrence
Lajja – Taslima Nasreen
Last Burden – Upamanyu Chatterjee
Last Things – C.P. Snow
Le Contract (Social Contract) – J.J. Rousseau
Lead Kindly Light – Vincent Shean
Leaders – Richard Nixon
Leaves of Grass – Walt Whitman
Less Miserables – Victor Hugo
Leviathan – Thomas Hobbes
Life Divine – Sri Aurobindo
Life is Elsewhere – Milan Kundera
Life of Samuel Jhonson – James Bosewell
Living History – Hillary Clinton
Lolita – Vladimir Nobakov
Loneliness of the Long Distance Runner – Allan Sillitoe
Long Day’s Journey into Night – Eugene O’Neill
Long Walk to Freedom – Nelson Mandela
Look Back in Anger – John Osborne
Lord of the Files – William Golding
Love Story – Erich Segal

M
Macbeth – William Shakespeare
Magic Mountain – Thomas Mann
Mahatma Gandhi and his Apostles – Ved Mehta
Main Street – Romain Rolland
Malgudi Days – R.K. Narayan
Man and Superman – George Bernard Shaw
Man of Property – John Galsworthy
Man, Beast and Virtue – Luigi Pirandello
Man-eaters of Kumaon – Jim Corbett
Managing for the Future – Peter Drucker
Managing for Results – Peter Drucker
Mankind and Mother Earth – Arnold Toynbee
Many Worlds - K.P.S Menon
Mayor of Casterbridge – Thomas Hardy
Mein Kampf – Adolf Hitler
Memories of Hope – Gen. Charles de Gaulle
Men are from Mars, Women are from Venus – John Gray
Middle March – George Eliot
Midnight’s Children – Salman Rushdie
Mill on the Floss – George Eliot
Moby Dick – Hermann Melville
Moonwalk – Michael Jackson
Mother India – Katherine Mayo
Mother – Maxim Gorky
Much Ado About Nothing – William Shakespeare
Murder in the Cathedral – T.S. Eliot
My Days – R.K. Narayan
My India – S. Nihal Singh
My Life and Times – V.V. Giri
My Music, My Life – Pandit Ravi Shankar
My own Boswell – M. Hidayatullah
My Presidential Years – R. Venkataraman
Mystic River – Dennis Lehane
My Son’s Father – Dom Moraes
My Truth – Indira Gandhi

N
Nana – Emile Zola
Never At Home – Dom Moraes
New Dimensions of India’s Foreign Policy – Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Nice Guys Finish Second – B. K. Nehru
Nineteen Eighty Four – George Orwell
Nisheeth – Uma Shankar Joshi
No Full Stops in India – Mark Tully
Nostradamus and his Prophecies – Edgar Leoni
Nostromo – Joseph Conrad

O
O’ Jerusalem – Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre
Odakkuzhal – G. Shankara Kurup
Of Human Bondage – W. Somerset Maugham
Oliver Twist – Charles Dickens
On The Threshold of Hope – Pope John Paul II
One Hundred Years of Solitude – Gabriel Garcia Marquez
One World and India – Arnold Toynbee
One World – Wendell Wilkie
Operation Bluestar: The True Story – Lt. Gen. K.S. Brar
Operation Shylock - Philip Roth
Othello – William Shakespeare
Our Films, Their Films – Satyajit Ray
Out of Africa – Isak Dinesen

P
Painter of Signs – R.K. Narayan
Pakistan Cut to Size – D.R. Mankekar
Pakistan: The Gathering Storm – Benazir Bhutto
Pale Blue Dot – Carl Sagan
Panchatantra – Vishnu Sharma
Paradise Lost – John Milton
Pather Panchali – Bibhuti Bhushan
Patriotic Gore – Edmund Wilson
People Like Us – Pavan Verma
Peter Pan – J.M. Barrie
Plain Speaking – N. Chandrababu Naidu
Pleading Guilty – Scott Turow
Portrait of India – Ved Mehta
Post Office – Rabindra Nath Tagore
Prelude – William Wordsworth
Preoccupations – Saemus Heaney
Present at the Creation – Dean Acheson
Pride and Prejudice – Jane Austen
Prince – Niccolo Machiavelli
Principa Mathematica – Bertrand Russel
Prison Diary – Jayaprakash Narayan
Private Lives – Noel Coward
Profiles in Courage – John F. Kennedy
Pygmalion – George Bernard Shaw

R
Rabbit, Run – John Updike
Rangbhoomi – Prem Chand
Rape of Bangladesh – Anthony Mascarenhas
Ravan and Eddie – Kiran Nagarkar
Rebel, The – Albert Camus
Red Badge of Courage – Stephen Crane
Red Earth and Pouring Rain – Vikram Seth
Red Star Over China – Edgar Snow
Reflections on the French Revolution – Edmund Burke
Remembering Babylon – David Malouf
Rendezvous with Rama – Arthur C. Clark
Revolution from Within – Gloria Steinem
Riding the Storm – Harold MacMillan
Riot: A Novel – Shashi Tharoor
Rise and Fall of the Third Reich – William L. Shierer
Robinson Crusoe – Daniel Defoe
Romeo and Juliet – William Shakespeare
Room at the Top – John Braine
Rabaiyat-I Omar Khyyam – Edward Fitzgerald

S
Saket – Maithili Sharan Gupt
Sanctuary – William Faulkner
Scam, The: Who Won, Who Lost , Who Got Away – Debashis Basu and Sucheta Dalal
Scarlet Letter – Nathaniel Hawthome
Seven Lamps of Architecture - John Ruskin
Seven Summers – Mulk Raj Anand
Sexual Behaviour in the American Male – Alfred Kinsey
Shadow and Act – Ralph Ellison
Shape from Ladakh – Bhavani Bhattacharya
Shape of Thing to Come – H.G. Wells
She Stoops to Conquer – Oliver Goldsmith
Siddharta – Hermann Hesse
Silent Spring – Rachel Carson
Six Characters in Search of an Author – Luigi Piradello
Six Easy Pieces – Richard P. Feyman
Slaughter House Five – Kurt Vonnegut
Small is Beautiful: A Study of Economics as if People Mattered – Ernst Schumacher
Snakes and Ladders: Essays on India – Gita Mehta
Snow Country – Yasunari Kawabata
Sohrab and Rustam – Mathew Arnold
Sons and Lovers – D.H. Lawrence
Sophie’s Choice – William Styron
Story of My Life – Moshe Dayan
Strangers and Brothers – C.P. Snow
Strife – John Galsworthy
Stupid White Men – Michael Moore
Sun Stone – Octavio Paz
Sunny Days – Sunil Gavaskar
Swami and Friends – R.K. Narayan

T
Talisman – Sir Walter Scott
Tarzan of Apes – Edgar Rice Burroughs
Tempest – William Shakespeare
Tender is the Night – E. Scott Fitzgerald
Tenth Insight – James Redfield
Thank You, Jeeves – P.G. Wodehouse
The Adventures of Sherlock Holmes – Arthur Conan Doyle
The Affluent Society – John Kenneth Galbraith
The Age of Reason – Jean Paul Sartre
The Agenda – Bob Woodward
The Agony and the Ecstasy – Irving Stone
The Ambassadors – Henry James
The Applecart - George Bernard Shaw
The Arrangement – Elia Kazan
The Banyan Tree – Hugh Tinker
The Best and the Brightest – David Halberstam
The Better Man – Anita Nair
The Big Fisherman – Lloyd Douglas
The Bride’s Book of Beauty – R.J. Waller
The Cancer Ward – Alexander Solzhenitsyn
The Call of the Wild – Jack London
The Canterbury Tales – Geoffery Chaucer
The Captive of the Caucasus – Alexander Pushkin
The Cardinal – Henry Morton Robinson
The Caretaker – Harold Pinters
The Castle – Ranz Kafka
The Cat and Shakespeare – Raja Rao
The Changing World of the Executive – Peter Drucker
The Civil War – Shelby Foote
The Clown – Heinrich Boll
The Coup – John Updike
The Court Dancer – Rabindra Nath Tagore
The Crucible – Arthur Miller
The Day of the Locust – Nathaniel West
The Death of Vishnu – Manil Suri
The Degeneration of India – T.N. Sheshan
The Diary of a Young Girl – Anne Frank
The Double Helix – James D. Watson
The End of a Beautiful Era – Joseph Brodsky
The End of History and the Last Man – Francis Fukuyama
The Executioner’s Song – Norman Mailer
The Eye of the Storm – Patrick White
The Far Pavilions – M.M. Kaye
The Faraway Music – Svetlana Allilueva
The Feminine Mystique – Betty Friedan
The Fifth Horseman – Larry Collins and Domnique Lapierre
The Fire Next Time – James Baldwin
The Forbidden Sea – Tara Ali Baig
The French Lieutenant’s Woman – John Fowles
The Fury – Salman Rushdie
The Ginger Man – J.P. Donleavy
The Glass Palace – Amitav Ghosh
The God of Small Things – Arundhati Roy
The Godfather – Mario Puzo
The Golden Gate – Vikram Seth
The Grapes and the Wind – Pablo Neruda
The Grapes of Wrath – John Steinbeck
The Great Challenge – Louis Fischer
The Great Indian Novel – Shashi Tharoor
The Guns of August – Barbara Tuchman
The Heart is a Lonely Hunter – Carson McCullers
The Hitchhiker’s Guide to the Galaxy – Douglas Adams
The Horse Whisperer – Nicholas Evans
The Green Knight – Iris Murdoch
The Heart of the Matter – Graham Greene
The Hot Zone – Richard Prelurid
The House of the Spirits – Isabel Allende
The Humboldt Gift – Saul Bellow
The Idiot – Feodor Dostoyevsky
The Importance of Being Earnest – Oscar Wilde
The Interpreter of Maladies – Jhumpa Lahiri
The Interpreters – Wole Soyinka
The Invisible Man – Ralph Ellison
The Joke – Milan Kundera
The Judge – Steve Martini
The Judgement – Kuldip Nayar
The Keeper of the Keys – Milan Kundera
The Last Temptation of Christ – Kazant Zakis
The Legends of Khasak – O.V. Vijayan
The Making of a Midsummer Night’s Dream – David Selboume
The Mandarin – Simon de Beauvoir
The Masters – C.P. Snow
The Man Who Killed Gandhi – Manohar Malgaonkar
The Merchant of Venice – William Shakespeare
The Middle Ground – Margaret Drabble
The Mind of the C.E.O. – Jeffrey E. Garten
The Minister’s Wife – Amaresh Mishra
The Miser – Moliere
The Moon and Sixpence – W. Somerset Maugham
The Moor’s Last Sigh – Salman Rushdie
The Night Manager – Johnie Cane
The Old Man and the Sea – Ernest Hemingway
The Origin of Species – Charles Darwin
The Other Side of Midnight – Sidney Sheldon
The Painted Veil – W. Somerset Maugham
The Pickwick Papers – Charles Darwin
The Pilgrim’s Progress – John Bunyan
The Power and the Glory – Graham Greene
The Power of Positive Thinking – Norman Vincent Peale
The Private Life of Chairman Mao – Dr. Li Zhisui
The Proper Study of Mankind – Isaiah Berlin
The Rain King – Saul Bellow
The Rape of the Lock – Alexander Pope
The Return of the Native – Thomas Hardy
The Rights of Man – Thomas Hardy
The Road Ahead – Bill Gates
The Robe – Lloyd C. Douglas
The Roots – Alex Haley
The Satanic Verses – Salman Rushdie
The Second World War – Winston Churchill
The Seven Spiritual Laws of Success – Deepak Chopra
The Sheltering Sky – Paul Bowles
The Shoes of the Fisherman – Morris L. West
The Social Contract – Rousseau
The Songs of India – Sarojini Naidu
The Sound and the Fury – William Faulkner
The Spirit of the Age – William Hazlitt
The Story of My Experiments with Truth – Mahatma Gandhi
The Strange and Sublime Address – Amit Chaudhary
The Struggle in My Life – Nelson Mandela
The Sword and the Sickle – Mulk Raj Anand
The Testament – John Grisham
The Third Wave – Alvin Tofler
The Total Zone – Martina Navaratilova
The Tree of Man – Patrick White
The Trial – Franz Kafka
The Trotter-Nama – Allan Sealy
The Unfurnished Man – Patrick White
The Vendor of Sweets – R.K. Narayan
The Victim – Saul Bellow
The Volcano Lover – Susan Sontag
The Wasteland – T.S. Eliot
The Way of all Flesh – Samuel Butler
The Wealth of Nations – Adam Smith
Theory of War – John Brady
Things Fall Apart - Chinua Achebe
Thirteenth Sun, The – Amrit Pritam
Thom Birds – Collen McCullough
Thousand Cranes – Yasunari Kawabata
Three Horsemen of the New Apocalypse – Nirad C. Chaudhary
Time Machine – H.G. Wells
Tin Drum – Gunther Grass
Tinker, Tailor Soldier – John Le-Came
Tome Jones – Henry Fielding
To the Lighthouse – Virginia Woolf
Train to Pakistan – Khushwant Singh
Treasure Island – Robert Louis Stevenson
Tropic of Cancer – Henry Miller
Tryst with Destiny – S. Gopalan
Twelfth Night – William Shakespeare
Two Leaves and a Bud – Mulk Raj Anand

U
Ulysses – James Joyce
Uncle Tom’s Cabin – Harriet Beecher Stowe
Under the Net – Iris Murdoch
Unsafe at Any Speed – Ralph Nader
Unto The Last – John Ruskin
Untold Story – General B.M. Kaul
Up from Slavery – Booker T. Washington
Utopia – Thomas Moore

V
Valley of the Dolls – Jacqueline Susann
Vanity Fair – William Thackeray

W
Waiting for Godot – Samuel Beckett
Waiting for the Mahatma – R.K. Narayan
Wake up India – Annie Besant
War and Peace – Leo Tolstoy
Westward Ho – Charles Kingsley
What they don’t teach you at Harvard Business School – Mark. H. Mc Cormack
Who is Kalam? – R. Ramanathan
Who moved my cheese? – Dr. Spencer Johnson
Wings of Fire – A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Winter Solstice – Rosamunder Pilcher
Witness to an Era – Frank Moraes
Women in Love – D.H. Lawrence
World Within Worlds – Stephen Spender
Wuthering Heights – Emily Bronte

Y
Yayati – V.S. Khandekar
Year of the Upheaval – Henry Kissinger
Yesterday and Today – K.P.S. Menon
You Can Win – Shiv Khera

Z
Zen and the Art of Motocycle Maintenance – Robert Pirsig

Biggest, Highest, Largest, Longest.. in the World

2008-10-04T21:37:00.001-07:00

BIGGEST, HIGHEST, LARGEST, LONGEST .... IN THE WORLD

Animal, Tallest
Giraffe

Achipelago, Largest
Indonesia

Bird, Fastest
Swift

Bird, Largest
Ostrich

Bird, Smallest
Humming Bird

Bridge, Longest Railway
Huey P. Long Bridge, Lousiana (USA)

Building, Tallest
Burj Dubai, UAE

Canal, Longest Irrigational
The Kalakumsky Canal

Canal, Longest
Suez Canal

Capital, Highest
La Paz (Bolivia)

City, Biggest in area
Mount Isa (Australia)

City, Largest in Population
Tokyo

City, Costliest
Tokyo

City, Highest
Van Chuan (China)

Continent, Largest
Asia

Continent, Smallest
Australia

Country, Biggest in Area
Russia

Country, Largest in Population
China

Country, Largest in Electorate
India

Creature, Largest
Blue Whale

Delta, Largest
Sunderban (Bangladesh and India)

Desert, Largest in World
Sahara (Africa)

Desert, Largest in Asia
Gobi

Dam, Largest
Grand Coulee Dam (USA)

Dam, Highest
Hoover Dam (USA)

Diamond, Largest
The Cullinan

Dome, Largest
Astrodome, Houstan (USA)

Epic, Largest
Mahabharat

Irrigation Scheme, Largest
Lloyd Barrage, Sukkhur (Pakistan)

Island, Largest
Greenland

Ocean, Largest
Pacific

Sea, Largest
Mediterranean Sea

Lake, Deepest
Baikal (Siberia)

Lake, Highest
Titicaca (Bolivia)

Lake, Largest (Artificial)
Lake Mead (Boulder Dam)

Lake, Largest (Fresh Water)
Superior

Lake, Largest (Salt Water)
Caspian

Library, Largest
United States Library of Congress, Washington DC

Mountain Peak, Highest
Everest (Nepal)

Mountain Range, Longest
Andes (South America)

Museum, Largest
British Museum, London

Palace, Largest
Vatican (Italy)

Park, Largest
Yellow Stone National Park (USA)

Peninsula, Largest
Arabia

Place, Coldest (Habitated)
Verkhoyansk (Siberia)

Place, Dryest
Iqique (in Atlantic Desert, Chile)

Place, Hottest
Azizia (Libya, Africa)

Place, Highest Rainfall
Mausinram (Meghalaya, India)

Planet, Biggest
Jupiter

Planet, Smallest
Mercury

Planet, Brightest
Venus

Plateau, Highest
Pamir (Tibet)

Platform, Longest Railway
Kharagpur (India)

Railway, Longest
Trans-Siberian Railway

Railway Station, Largest
Grand Central Terminal, Chicago (USA)

River, Longest
Nile (Africa)

River, Largest
Amazon (South America)

Sea-bird, Largest
Albatross

Star, Brightest
Sirius

Statue, Tallest
Statue of Motherland, Volgagrad (Russia)

Telescope, Largest Radio
New Mexico (USA)

Tramway, First in World
New York

Tunnel, Longest (Railway)
Tanna (Japan)

Tunnel, Longest (Road)
Mont Blanc Tunnel (between France and Italy)

Volcano, Highest
Ojos del Salado (Andes, Ecuador)

Volcano, Most Active
Maunaloa (Hawaii – USA)

Wall, Longest
Great Wall of China

Waterfall, Highest
Angel (Venezuela)

Water, Lowest Body
Dead Sea

Zoo, Largest
Kruger National Park, South Africa

General Science 1

2008-09-29T03:07:00.001-07:00

Questionnaire 1

1. The energy released on account of the motion of a body is termed as the:
A. potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. relative velocity
D. None of these

2. Kilowatt is the measuring unit of:
A. power
B. current
C. work
D. energy

3. In which unit can we measure food energy?
A. Calorie
B. Keloin
C. Joule
D. Erg

4. The conservation of energy principle refers to the fact that:
A. it is essential not to waste natural gas and oil, for these are limited in supply
B. solar heating makes use of the sun’s energy, which would otherwise be wasted
C. energy can neither be created nor destroyed
D. nuclear-power plants recycle spent fuel

5. One HP is equal to ___ kg per meter per second.
A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 10

6. When a constant force is applied to a body, it moves with uniform:
A. Speed
B. Velocity
C. Acceleration
D. Momentum

7. ‘Parsec’ is a unit of:
A. weight
B. time
C. speed
D. distance

8. Knot is unit of speed of which of the following?
A. Ship
B. Aeroplane
C. Light rays
D. Sound waves

9. Assume that - A denotes narrow wheel, A wider wheel, B denotes small free wheel, B larger free wheel, C denotes small gear wheel, C larger gear wheel, - in a rural area where there are sandy tracts, it will be advisable to use a bicycle with :
A. A, B, C
B. A, B, C
C. A, B, C
D. A, B, C

10. A wheel that has 6 cogs is meshed with a larger wheel of 14 cogs. When the smaller wheel has made 21 revolutions, the number of revolutions made by the larger wheel is:
A. 12
B. 49
C. 9
D. 4

11. If rubber tyres replace wheels in bullock carts then:
1. speed of bullock cart increases
2. load carrying capacity increases
3. the capacity of bullock to pull the cart at a stretch increases
4. None of the above

A. 1 & 3correct
B. 2 & 3correct
C. 1 & 2correct
D. 1, 2 & 3correct

12. Rolling a drum is easier than pulling it along a road beacuse:
A. rolling causes less friction
B. friction is more when the object is rolled
C. pulling willl damage the drum
D. None of the above

13. Walking on ice is more difficult than walking on concrete because ice:
A. gives less friction
B. gives more friction
C. is very cold and as such blood gets frozen up
D. being soft, one can get bogged down into it while walking

14. What should be done by a car driver if he is caught on the way by a severe thunder storm and lightening?
A. He should leave the wheel and lie down on the ground
B. He should remain inside the car with its window glasses all pulled up
C. Park the car beneath a tall tree
D. Just bite a piece of cotton firmly in between the two rows of teeth

15. Ball bearings are used in cycles and scooters to:
A. reduce the area of contact between the two surfaces in contact
B. reduce friction between wheel and axle
C. increase friction between wheel and axle
D. reduce friction between ground and vehicle

16. How do the centripetal forces pull a body?
A. Upward
B. Downward
C. Inwards
D. Outwards

17. When milk is churned, the cream separates from it due to the:
A. cohesive force
B. frictional force
C. centrifugal force
D. gravitational force

18. A body in circular motion requires:
A. centrifugal force
B. centripetal force
C. inertial force
D. gravitational force

19. The rising of ink to the point of nib in a fountain pen is due to:
A. surface tension
B. capillary action
C. gravitational attraction
D. None of the above

20. As one goes up the mountain one suffers from nose bleeding sometimes. The reason is that
A. blood pressure decreases at high altitudes
B. blood pressure increases at high altitudes
C. as one starts going up, the pressure of the blood capillaries becomes higher than the outside pressure
D. None of the above

21. Birds get thrust (forward motion) and lift (upward motion) from:
A. flapping of wings
B. twisting of feathers
C. shape of wings which is similar to aeroplane blades
D. air sacs

22. Small rain-drops are spherical in shape because of:
A. surface-tension
B. gravity
C. atmospheric pressure
D. evaporation

23. The cross-section of the water column in the given figure is circular. The diameter of the bigger limb is 4 cm and that of the smaller limb 2 cm. A force of 40kg is placed at the bigger end. What force will be required at the smaller end to keep the level of water balanced?
A. 20 kg
B. 80 kg
C. 160 kg
D. 10 kg

24. A body partially floats in water when:
A. the volume of the displaced water is greater than the volume of the body
B. a body immersed in fluid loses as much in weight as the weight of the displaced volume of the fluid
C. the mass of the displaced water is greater than the mass of the body
D. None of the above

25. Which of the following is used in diesel engine?
1. Cylinder
2. Spark plug
3. Piston

Choose your answer from the codes
given below :
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3

26. Iron is heavier than water, still the ship floats on the sea because
A. weight of the ship is less than the weight of water in the sea
B. weight of the ship is more than sea water
C. weight of the ship is less than the weight of water that the ship displaces
D. weight of ship is equal to the weight of water that ship displaces

27. The volume of an object will be maximum when it is:
A. spherical
B. rectangular
C. cone shaped
D. triangular

28. The mass of the body is different from its weight because:
A. mass is variable quantity whereas weight is constant
B. mass is constant but weight increases as the body moves from the poles to the Equator
C. mass varies very little at different places where as weight varies a lot
D. mass is a measure of the quantity of matter where as weight is a force

29. Which one of the following is a vector quantity?
A. volume
B. mass
C. weight
D. density

30. The weight of a body at the centre of the earth is:
A. increased
B. neutralised
C. decreased
D. the same

31. A certain amount of cold air will weigh heavier than the same amount of dry air because of the:
A. greater number of molecules at low temperature
B. lesser number of molecules at high temperature
C. greater energy of molecules at high temperature
D. lesser energy of molecules at high temperature

32. A free-floating astronaut ‘A’ pushes another free-floating astronaut ‘B’ in space. The mass of ‘A’ is greater than that of ‘B’. The force exerted by astronaut ‘A’ on astronaut ‘B’ will be:
A. equal to zero
B. equal to the force exerted by ‘B’ on ‘A’
C. greater than the force exerted by ‘B’on ‘A’
D. les than the force exerted by ‘B’ on ‘A’

33. On the lunar surface:
A. weight remains same but mass varies
B. mass ramains same but weight varies
C. both of them vary
D. None of the above is true

34. The effect of circular movements on a person in a satellite around the earth is that:
A. his mass becomes nil while the weight remains the same
B. his mass remains constant while weight becomes zero
C. his mass goes up while the weight remains unchanged
D. None of the above

35. A wooden block is floating in water. If 4/5 of its volume is immersed in water and volume of the water displaced is 800ml, the volume of the block is:
A. 1140 ml
B. 200 ml
C. 800 ml
D. 100 ml

36. A balloon filled with air is weighted (W) so that it just floats in water. When it is further pushed a short distance in water it will:
A. sink to the bottom
B. stay at the depth where it stands submerged
C. not come back to its original position
D. sink down a little further but will not reach the bottom

37. Oil, water and gas can be present in a well in the ascending order of:
A. water, oil, gas
B. gas, water, oil
C. water, gas, oil
D. oil, water, gas

38. Mercury is preferred to water in barometer because:
A. mercury is good conductor of heat
B. mercury is bright and hence its level can be easily read
C. mercury is available in pure form
D. mercury has high density and low surface tension

39. An aeroplane rises up:
A. on account of upward thrust of air
B. as the air over the aeroplane is denser than that under the plane
C. as the pressure over its wings is more than the pressure under them
D. as its nose is pointed upwards

40. A boat filed with some stones is floating in water. If the stones are dropped into the water, the level of the water will:
A. rise
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. insufficient data to predict

41. When a ship enters sea from a river, its level:
A. remains same
B. rises
C. may or may not change
D. decreases

42. There is a hole in the boat through which water is seeping into the boat. Just before the boat capsizes :
A. water level in the boat will increase
B. water level will decrease
C. water level will remain constant
D. None of these

43. An ice cube is floating in a glass of water. How will the water level be affected when the ice cube melts?
A. The level of water will go up
B. The level of water will go down
C. The level of water will remain unchanged
D. In the beginning the level will go up but later on the level will go down

44. Fathom is the unit of:
A. sound
B. depth
C. distance
D. frequency

45. Ordinary clocks lose time during summer. It is so because the length of their pendulum:
A. increases and so does the length of time
B. increases and therefore its duration of time decreases
C. decreases and therefore the length of time increases
D. decreases and therefore the length of time decreases

46. A body is attached to a spring balance suspended from a stand. The reading on the balance is 0.5 kg. The two together are detached from the stand and allowed to fall through a height. While falling the reading in the balance will be:
A. zero
B. less than 0.5kg but not zero
C. more than 0.5 kg depending on the height
D. 0.5 kg

47. Two bars of gold and silver are weighed by spring balance and read 200 gms each. These bars are then suspended in a liquid and weighed by using the same balance. What could be derived?
A. Gold will weigh more than silver
B. Silver will weigh more than gold
C. Both the bars will be equal in weight
D. Nothing can be said, unless the density of the liquid is known

48. Which one of the following will take place when a watch based on oscillating spring is taken to a deep mine?
A. It will become slow
B. It will become fast
C. It will indicate the same time as on earth
D. It will stop working

49. Very small-time intervals are accurately measured by the:
A. pulsars
B. while dwarfs
C. atomic clocks
D. quartz clocks

50. Match the following:

List I	List II
a. Cusec	1. Pressure
b. Byte	2. Intensity of Earthquake
c. Ricter	3. Rate of Flow
d. Bar	4. Computer Memory

A. a4, b1, c2, d3
B. a2, b4, c3, d1
C. a3, b4, c2, d1
D. a3, b2, c1, d4

Indian Polity 6

2008-09-21T06:31:00.001-07:00

1. Which of the following is not a fundamental right?

A. Right to speech

B. Right to vocation

C. Right to go on strike

D. Right to education

2. The right to Freedom of Speech in India may be restricted, if the freedom is used to:

A. incite people to violence

B. propagate nationalisation of the private sector

C. level charges of corruption against those in power

D. spread superstition

3. How can the Fundamental Rights be protected?

A. A citizen whose Fundamental Rights have been violated can approach the Supreme Court which will issue appropriate writ against the authority

B. Supreme Court will take note of such violations itself

C. The executive will inform the Courts

D. No need of any reference by any Court; it is automatically protected

4. What happens when a law passed by the Parliament or State Legislature conflicts with the Fundamental Rights?

A. It will be unconstitutional so not enforceable

B. If law is passed to enforce Directive Principles of State Policy it shall not be unconstitutional

C. Neither of these is correct

D. Both A and B are correct

5. Which restrictions have been placed on Fundamental Rights?

A. When the Proclamation of National Emergency is in operation the Freedoms are automatically suspended

B. States are allowed to impose certain reasonable restrictions for certain purposes

C. Fundamental Rights are absolute

D. Only A and B are correct

6. Which of the following are included in Right to Freedom of Religion?

A. Right to Freedom of Conscience

B. Practice and propagation of religion

C. Right to Freedom against forced religious instructions

D. Right to freedom from payment of tax for the promotion of a particular religion

E. All of these

7. Which one of the following is not a fundamental right?

A. Right to freedom of religion

B. Right to freedom of thought and expression

C. Right to equality

D. Right to employment and leisure

8. Which are included under cultural and educational rights?

A. Right of the minorities to promote their language

B. Right against discrimination for admission in educational institutions on the grounds of religion, race or caste

C. Minorities have the right to establish and administer their educational institutions

D. All of these

9. Which of the following rights have been given to the foreigners in India under the Constitution?

A. Right to equality before law

B. Right to protection of life and personal liberty

C. Right to protection against arrest in certain cases

D. Right against exploitation

E. All of these

10. Why are the Fundamental Rights considered fundamental?

A. Necessary for the successful working of democratic institution

B. Basic to the welfare, dignity and happiness of the individual

C. Constitution is based on these

D. Only A and B

11. Which Court in India has the Special responsibility of enforcing Fundamental Rights?

A. Supreme Court

B. High Court

C. District and Sessions Court

D. Any Court

12. Of which fundamental right is a foreigner in India deprived of?

A. To seek justice in court

B. To seek security of life

C. To criticise policies of government

D. To vote at the time of Parliamentary election

13. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the ‘Right to Freedom’ as guaranted by the

Constitution of India?

A. Unrestricted freedom of speech and expression

B. Freedom to form association

C. Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property

D. Freedom to practise any trade or business

14. Which Fundamental Right of the Indian Constitution prohibits traffic in human beings?

A. Right to equality

B. Right against exploitation

C. Right to freedom

D. None of the above

15. Which of the following statements regarding the difference between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are correct?

A. Fundamental Rights are justiciable

B. Fundamental Rights prevail if they come in conflict with Directive Principles

C. If a law is passed for the enforcement of Directive Principles it will not be declared unconstitutional even if it comes in clash with Fundamental Rights

D. All of them are correct

13. Which of the following is not a fundamental right?

A. Right to equality

B. Right to religion

C. Right to property

D. Right to speech

17. Under the Constitution of India, Right to Property is a:

A. Constitutional Right

B. Fundamental Right

C. Legal Right

D. Moral Right

18. The right to life is a:

A. Civil Right

B. Political Right

C. Economic Right

D. Moral Right

19. Which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

A. To safeguard public property

B. To have compassion for living creatures

C. To protect lakes, rivers and forests

D. To promote educational and economic interests of the weaker sections

20. In the Indian Constitution, opportunities for the development of scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform are found in the:

A. Fundamental rights

B. Fundamental duties

C. Preamble

D. Directive Principles of State Policy

21. Which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

A. Secularism

B. To abide by the Constitution and to respect its ideals

C. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence

D. To honour the national flag

22. What is meant by ‘office of profit’?

A. It is that office the holder of which draws pecuniary benefits from the government

B. Office which gives an opportunity to exploit others

C. Office which is meant only for profit making

D. Office which means any financial involvement

23. To elect the President of India which one of the following election procedures issused?

A. System of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote

B. Proportional representation through list system

C. Collective voting system

D. Secondary voting system

24. The value of a vote of a member of Parliament for the election of the President of India is determined by dividing the:

A. nation’s population as per the latest census by the number of Lok Sabha members

B. population as per the latest census by the total strength of the two Houses of the Parliament

C. total value of votes of members of all the state Legislative Assemblies by the elected members of the two Houses of Parliament

D. particular State’s population as per the latest census by the number of members of Parliament elected from the State

25. Match the following:

List I	List II
a. a person with maximum no. of votes gets elected	1. List system
b. a person votes for the party and not for the candidate	2. Limited vote plan
c. 1candidate -1vote	3. Single transferable vote
d. 1elector - many votes	4. Relative majority
	5. Cumulative vote

Codes :

A. a1, b2, c3, d4

B. a4, b1, c2, d5

C. a5, b4, c2, d1

D. a2, b5, c1, d3

26. The Chief advantage of ‘proportional representation’ is:

A. proportional representation to all parties in legislature

B. equal opportunity for the poor as well as the rich

C. elimination of corruptions

D. None of the above

27. The President of India is elected by:

(i) elected members of Lok Sabha

(ii) elected members of the Rajya Sabha

(iii) elected members of Legislative Assemblies

(iv) elected members of the Legislative Councils

(v) All the above

A. (i) and (iii)

B. (i), (ii), (iii)

C. (i), (iii) and (iv)

D. (v)

28. To become the President of India, one should have attained the age of :

A. 35 years

B. 65 years

C. 60 years

D. 30 years

29. Who administers oath of office to the President of India?

A. Chief Justice of Supreme Court

B. Speaker, LokSabha

C. Prime Minister

D. Vice-President

30. The President of India holds office for a period of:

A. 6 years

B. 5 years

C. 4 years

D. 7 years

31. A dispute regarding the election of the President is referred to the:

A. Election Commission

B. Parliament

C. Supreme Court

D. Vice-President

32. Can an MP or MLA be elected as President of India?

A. Yes, after assuming office he will have to resign from the Parliament or Legislature

B. No, he will have to resign before contesting election

C. Yes, he can retain his membership of the Parliament if he likes

D. Yes, he cannot remain MLA though he can remain MP

33. What is Electoral College?

A. Where electorates are educated

B. Where electorates assemble

C. Eligible voters for electing the President of India

D. Those who elect speaker

34. Can the President be re-elected? If so, how many times?

A. Yes, 2 times

B. Yes, 3 times

C. No

D. Yes, as many times as he likes

35. Which one of the following statements regarding the election of the President of India is correct?

A. Candidate securing the majority of votes is not automatically elected

B. The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction in any doubt or dispute arising in connection with the election of the president

C. The Presidential election cannot take place when one or more State Assemblies stood dissolved because all the State Assemblies form part of the electoral college

D. The total value of the votes allotted to both Houses of Parliament is much more than the total value of the votes of all the States taken together

36. Can the election of President be held if the Assembly of one or more states stand dissolved at the time of elections?

A. Yes

B. No

C. Only if the Parliament allows

D. Only if Election Commissioner Permits

37. Can the Parliament reduce the salary of the President?

A. No, not during the terms of his office

B. Yes, by simple majority

C. Yes, by getting approval of the States

D. Yes, by PM’s approval

38. Is the salary of the President subject to Income tax?

A. Yes

B. No

C. After special deductions

D. After meeting expenses

39. The President of India is not a member of Parliament because:

A. he has to maintain his dignity of office

B. he has to se that he remains impartial

C. he holds an office of profit under the Government

D. his position will be lowered if he becomes the member of Parliament

40. The President should :

A. be a member of either House of Parliament

B. not be a member of either House of Parliament

C. be elected to the Parliament within six months of his election

D. the constitution is silent on the issue of his being member of any House of the Parliament

41. Is the President a part of the Union Parliament?

A. Yes

B. No

C. Yes, in the case of money bills only

D. Yes, only when he issues ordinance

42. Which of the following are the financial powers of the President of India?

A. No money bill can be introduced without his prior approval

B. He is responsible for the preparation of the Union Budget and causes it to be laid before the Parliament

C. All money bills passed by the Parliament are presented to him for assent

D. He appoints Finance Commission

E. All of these

43. Can the President of India dismiss the cabinet and take under his direct charge the administration of the country in a state of Emergency?

A. No

B. Yes

C. Under certain conditions only

D. None of the above

44. Which of the following are the powers of the President with regard to the Parliament?

A. Summon or prorogue the session of Parliament

B. Address the joint session of the two Houses

C. Can call a joint sitting of the two Houses

D. All of these

45. Which one is not the legal immunities of the President of India?

A. Not answerable to any court of law for the exercise of his powers

B. Cannot be compelled to appear as a witness before any court of law

C. No criminal proceedings can be brought against him during the terms of his office

D. His powers are not limited even by constitutional law

46. Who can declare peace or war from the legal point of view?

A. Prime Minister of India

B. President of India

C. The Chief of the Army Staff

D. The three Chiefs-Army, Navy and Air Force

47. Is the President of India the Supreme Commander of the three wings of the Army, the Navy, and the Air Force?

A. Yes

B. No, he has nothing to do with the armed forces

C. No, it is the PM who is the Supreme Commander of the 3 wings of the army

D. No, armed forces are under control of the Defence Minister

48. The President of India controls the Parliament:

A. directly

B. through the Chief Justice

C. through the Cabinet of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister

D. through the agency of the Defence Minister

49. The constitutional authority of the Indian President is the same as that of the:

A. US President

B. British Monarch

C. USSR President

D. Chancellor of Germany

50. On what grounds can the President be impeached?

A. For violation of the Constitution

B. For disobeying the PM

C. For disobeying Parliament

D. For disobeying Vice-President

Indian National Movement 7

2008-09-20T07:57:00.000-07:00

1. The Lucknow Session of 1916 of the Indian National Congress was held, especially:
A. to bring about closer cooperation between Congress and Muslim League
B. to select a Muslim Leader as the Congress President
C. to merge Muslim League into Congress
D. All the above

2. Which of the following is not correct regarding the Lucknow pact of 1916?
A. It marked an important step forward in Hindu-Muslim unity
B. It left the way open for the future resurgence of communalism
C. An important role in bringing the Congress and League together was played by Lokmanya Tilak
D. The two organisations passed the same resolutions for political reforms on joint electorates

3. Who among the following dreamt of Ram Rajya?
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Indira Gandhi
D. Dayananda Saraswati

4. Gandhiji believed in :
A. violence
B. untouchability
C. political gimmicks
D. decentralization of powers

5. What was the name of the periodical published by Mahatma Gandhi during his stay in South Africa?
A. Navjivan
B. India Gazette
C. Afrikaner
D. Indian Opinion

6. The weekly journal started by Gandhiji was :
A. Young India
B. Kesri
C. Comrade
D. Al Hilal

7. Which of the following books would you consult to get acquainted with the Gandhian Thought?
A. Discovery of India
B. India Divided
C. Hind Swaraj
D. India Wins Freedom

8. The political guru of Gandhiji was:
A. Dada Bhai Naoroji
B. Gokhale
C. S N Bannerjee
D. Tagore

9. Who gave the title of ‘Mahatma’ to Gandhiji?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. G D Birla
C. Rabindranath Tagore
D. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

10. The technique which was evolved by Gandhiji during his long struggle in South Africa and which later became the chief weapon for the attainment of Swaraj was:
A. non-violence
B. fasting un to death
C. satyagraha
D. hartal

11. Which one of the following statements about Mahatma Gandhiji’s views on Satyagraha is not correct?
A. It denotes assertion of the purest soul against social, political and economic dominance
B. It is the exercise of the purest soul force against all types of injustice
C. It is the best weapon of the weak against strong
D. Accepts the concept of self-suffering to wean away the evil doer by love and suffering

12. Satyagraha Ashram was established by who among the following?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan
C. Acharya Kriplani
D. Acharya Vinoba Bhave

13. Where did Mahatma Gandhi first try the weapon of Satyagraha?
A. South Africa
B. Champaran
C. Bardoli
D. Dandi

14. The first satyagraha in India by MahatmaGandhi in 1917 was at:
A. Ahmedabad
B. Champaran
C. Sabarmati
D. Bardoli

15. Gandhiji experimented with Satyagraha at Champaran in Bihar in order to:
A. unite the peasants, Landlords and businesmen against the British Indian government
B. launch a Civil Disobedience Movement
C. remove untouchability
D. help the Indigo workers

16. Gandhiji’s ‘Champaran Movement’ was for :
A. securing the rights of Harijans
B. Civil Disobedience Movement
C. maintaining the unity of Hindu Society
D. solving the problems of theIndigo workers

17. Mahatma Gandhi’s first experience in mass movement in India was at:
A. Champaran
B. Chauri-Chaura
C. Dandi
D. Sabarmati

18. In 1918, Gandhiji intervened in a dispute between:
A. peasants and planters
B. workers and mill owners
C. moderates and extremists
D. rightists and socialists

19. The scheme of constitutional reforms of Edwin Montague and Lord Chelmsford led to the enactment of the Government of India Act of:
A. 1935
B. 1919
C. 1909
D. 1892

20. The central idea of the provisions of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms was:
A. provincial autonomy
B. dyarchy
C. separate communal electorate
D. veto powers to the Governors

21. The term dyarchy meant:
A. the introduction of transferred and reserved subjects in the provinces
B. that the central government remained under the Governer-General but full responsible government was introduced in the provinces
C. creation of separate governments for provinces and the Centre
D. None of the above

22. ‘Rowlatt Act’ was passed by the British Government in:
A. 1919
B. 1921
C. 1915
D. 1929

23. The Rowlatt Act (1919) enabled the government to suspend the right of:
A. free speech
B. occupation
C. movement
D. habeas corpus

24. What is the correct chronological order of the following?
1. Pitts Act
2. Queen’s Proclamation
3. Regulating Act
4. Rowlatt Act

Choose the answer from the codes given below :
A. 3, 1,2, 4
B. 2,1, 3, 4
C. 3,4,2,1
D. 4,2,1,3

25. Gandhiji started Satyagraha in 1919 in protest against the:
A. Salt Law
B. Rowlatt Act
C. Act of 1909
D. Jalianwala Bagh Massacre

26. Arrange in chronological order the following events associated with Mahatma Gandhi’s advent in India:
I. Champaran movement
II. Foundation of Satyagraha Sabha
III. Agitation against Rowlatt Bills
IV. Kheda Satyagraha

A. II, I, IV, III
B. I, II, III, IV
C. III, II, I, IV
D. IV, III, II, I

27. Rabindra Nath Tagore renounced Knighthood in 1919 as a mark of protest against the:
A. Chauri Chaura Violence
B. Jalianwala Bagh Massacre
C. Hindu-Muslim Riot
D. Bhagat Singh’s Murder

28. A public meeting was held on April 13, 1919 in Jalianwala Bagh to:
A. organize a hartal
B. protest against the arrest of popular leaders
C. protest against the Rowlatt Act
D. demand Swaraj

29. Consider the following events of 1919 AD:
I. Rowlatt Act
II. Hunter Report
III. Jalianwala Bagh Masacre
IV. Return of Knighthood by Rabindra Nath Tagore

Their correct chronological sequence is:
A. I, II, III,IV
B. I, III,IV, II
C. II, I, III, IV
D. III, I, II, IV

30. The nationalist movement in India turned into an organised mass movement from:
A. 1857
B. 1919
C. 1937
D. 1905

31. The “Khilafat Movement” was started by:
A. Ali Brothers
B. M A Jinnah
C. Bhagat Singh
D. Chandrashekhar

32. The All India Khilafat Conference was held in1919 at:
A. Aligarh
B. Deoband
C. Lucknow
D. Delhi

33. The aim of Khilafat Movement was:
A. to preserve the Turkish empire and Khalifah as temporal head of the Indian Muslims
B. to obtain reservation of seats for Muslim community in government services
C. to secure a separate homeland for the Indian Muslims
D. India’s independence

34. Give the correct chronological order:
I. Jalianwala Bagh Massacre
II. Rowlatt Act
III. Khilafat Movement

A. II, I, III
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, I
D. I, III, II

35. ‘Khilafat’ Movement declined due to:
A. concession given to the Muslims by the British
B. amity achieved between Congress and Muslim League
C. accession of Kamal Pasha on the throne of Turkey
D. None of the above

36. The Khilafat Movement resulted in:
A. partition of India
B. Hindu-Muslim unity
C. Hindu-Muslim riots
D. split in the Indian National Congress

37. “Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it”. Whom is this saying attributed to?
A. M K Gandhi
B. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. Sardar Patel
D. B G Tilak

38. At which session of the Congress the goal of complete independence (Purna Swaraj) for India was declared?
A. Delhi, 1932
B. Lahore, 1929
C. Mumbai, 1934
D. Nagpur, 1920

39. The Congress Session which passed the Purna Swaraj resolution was presided over by:
A. Motilal Nehru
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

40. Consider the following sessions of the Indian National Congress:
The session in which
1.the Muslim League and Indian National Congress met jointly
2.the Indian National Congress divided into two groups
3.the resolution for ‘Complete Independence’ was passed
4.the Non-coperation resolution was passed

The correct chronological sequence of these sessions is :
A. 3,4, 1, 2
B. 2,1,4,3
C. 1,2,4,3
D. 1,2,3,4

41. The Congress supported Mahatma Gandhi’s plan for non-cooperation with the government (Sept 1920) till the Punjab and Khilafat wrongs were removed and:
A. poorna swaraj established
B. the Rowlatt Act annulled
C. parliamentary democracy introduced
D. swaraj established

42. The non-cooperation movement was formally launched on August 1, 1920,which is also memorable for:
A. publication of Al Hilal by Abul Kalam Azad
B. annulment of the partition of Bengal
C. death of Lala Lajpat Rai
D. death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak

43. Jawaharlal Nehru helped to start the newspaper :
A. Kesri
B. National Herald
C. Patriot
D. Pioneer

44. Who among the following worked for the amelioration of the depressed classes during the pre-independence era?
A. B R Ambedkar
B. J L Nehru
C. Ram ManoharLohia
D. Jagjivan Ram

45. Which of the following political parties/organisations were established by Dr B R Ambedkar?
1. Swaraj Party
2. Samaj Samata Sangh
3. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
4. The Independent Labour Party

A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3

46. In 1921the Session of the Indian National Congress was held when its President was in prison and with some other leader acting as president. Who was the Congress President in prison?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Mohammad Ali
C. C R Das
D. Abul Kalam Azad

47. In November 1921, huge demonstrations greeted:
A. the Prince of Wales
B. the Simon Commission
C. King George V
D. the cabinet mission

48. The Moplahs created a powerful movement in Malabar against the:
A. Zamindars
B. Rowlatt Act
C. Police
D. corrupt Mahants

49. The Non-Coperation movement was withdrawn in:
A. 1920
B. 1942
C. 1922
D. 1930

50. The non-cooperation movement was abruptly suspended by Gandhiji. Why ?
A. It turned out to be violent as against his principles of ahimsa
B. There was no good response from British
C. Certain individuals did not participate in it
D. There was no specific reason

Physical Geography 1

2008-09-20T05:54:00.000-07:00

1. Earth is represented nearly perfect by:
A. globe
B. maps
C. topography sheets
D. three-dimensional maps

2. Satellites put in orbit by man have discovered that the earth is:
A. exactly round
B. exactly oval
C. orange-shaped
D. pear-shaped

3. The shape of the Earth is:
A. spherical
B. circular
C. tetrahedral
D. geoid

4. The average diameter of the earth is approximately:
A. 25,000 miles
B. 10,000 miles
C. 8,000 miles
D. 15,000 miles

5. The circumference of the earth is:
A. 25,000 kms
B. 25,000 miles
C. 8,000 metres
D. 8,000 kms

6. The three basic movements of earth are:
A. galatic, revolution and rotation
B. katabatic, revolution and rotation
C. adiabatic, revolution and rotation
D. adiabatic, katabatic, galatic

7. Rotation refers to:
A. turning of the earth on its own axis
B. earth movement around the centre of the galaxy
C. earth movement around the sun
D. movement of the planets

8. When earth is closest to the sun, it is at:
A. perihelion
B. aphelion
C. kames
D. helion

9. When earth is farthest from the sun, it is at:
A. cirque
B. xerophitic
C. aphelion
D. perihelion

10. The earth is closest to the sun at a distance of about 91,500,000 miles on:
A. January 3
B. December 25
C. December 24
D. June 21

11. The earth is farthest from the sun at a distance of about 94,500,000 miles on:
A. July 4
B. June 22
C. March 2
D. September 22

12. The earth’s axis is tilted at an angle of:
A. 23.5°
B. 66.5°
C. 33.5°
D. 45.5°

13. The time required for the earth to complete one rotation with respect to stars is:
A. 23h 56m 4.09s
B. 24h
C. 24h 1m 0.1s
D. 23h

14. The time required for the earth to complete one rotation with respect to the sun is:
A. 23h 56m 4.09s
B. 24h
C. 24h 1m 0.1s
D. 23h

15. When earth completes one rotation in 23h 56m 4.09s, it is called a:
A. Sidereal day
B. Star day
C. Sun day
D. Lunar day

16. The northern tip of the earth is inclined towards the sun on:
A. June 21
B. December 2
C. March 21
D. September 22

17. When days and nights are of equal length on September 23, this position is known as:
A. equinox
B. occluded
C. veering
D. kames

18. How many days does the earth take to complete a circle around the sun?
A. 365
B. 365.5
C. 365.25
D. 366

19. The earth’s movement in its orbit is from:
A. West to East
B. East to West
C. North to South
D. South to North

20. The southern tip of the earth is inclined towards the sun on:
A. June 2
B. December 2
C. September 2
D. March 22

21. The sun rays on March 21 and September 23 strike with an angle of 90° on:
A. 0° latitude
B. 23.5° latitude
C. 66.5° latitude
D. 45.5° latitude

22. The sun rays strike on June 21 with an angle of 90° on the:
A. Tropic of Cancer
B. Tropic of Capricorn
C. Arctic Circle
D. Great Circle

23. The sun rays on December 2 strike with an angle of 90°on the:
A. Tropic of Cancer
B. Tropic of Capricorn
C. Antarctic Circle
D. Equator

24. Insolation is:
A. solar radiation
B. earth radiation
C. satellite radiation
D. lunar radiation

25. Intensity and duration of insolation are major factors that determine seasons. It varies due to:
A. inclination of axis and revolution
B. rotation
C. revolution
D. earth’s distance from sun

26. Earth’s annual revolution around the sun causes:
A. seasons
B. day and night
C. rainfall distribution on the globe
D. differing lengths of day and night in different places

27. Which of the following was not a leap year?
A. 1896
B. 1908
C. 1900
D. 1904

28. Generally temperature decreases with increase in:
A. latitude
B. longitude
C. sclerophyllous
D. altitude

29. Assertion (A): Only half of the moon’s surface is directly visible from the earth.
Reason (R): The period of rotation of the moon on its axis is equal to the period of its revolution of earth.
A. A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
B. A and R are true and R correctly explains A
C. Both A and R are false
D. A is false but R is true

30. Which one of the following best explains the occurrence of solar eclipse?
A. When sun is in between moon and earth
B. When earth is in between moon and sun
C. When moon comes between sun and earth on a new moon day
D. When moon comes between sun and earth on a full moon day

31. Which part of the sun is visible during a total solar eclipse?
A. Corona
B. Chromo sphere
C. Photosphere
D. No part is visible

32. Lunar Eclipse is caused when:
A. the sun and the moon and the earth are in a line
B. the earth comes between the sun and the moon
C. the sun and the earth are on either side of the moon
D. the sun comes between the earth and the moon

33. When does lunar eclipse occur?
A. On half moon
B. On quarter moon
C. On full moon
D. On new moon

34. The full moon rises in the:
A. South
B. North
C. East
D. West

35. Assertion (A) : Eclipses can not occur on all full moon and new moon days.
Reason (R): The moon revolves in an elliptical orbit round the earth.
A. A and R are true but R does not explain A
B. Both A and R are false
C. A and R are true and R correctly explains A
D. A is true but R is false

36. The longest circle which can be drawn on the earth surface passes along:
A. Circle of Arctic
B. Equator
C. Tropic of Cancer
D. Tropic of Capricorn

37. An imaginary circle which passes through the centre of the earth on its surface is called:
A. Great circle
B. Arctic circle
C. Antarctic circle
D. Equator

38. The imaginary parallel lines running from East to West are:
A. latitudes
B. longitudes
C. altitudes
D. prime meridian

39. The equator divides the earth into two hemispheres named:
A. North and South
B. East and West
C. North-South and East-West
D. South-West and North-East

40. The end point of the imaginary axis is called:
A. Pole
B. Point
C. Selva
D. Cirque

41. The imaginary lines running from North to South are called:
A. latitudes
B. longitudes
C. parallels
D. altitudes

42. The latitude of a place expresses its angular position relative to the plane of:
A. Axis of the Earth
B. Equator
C. North Pole
D. South Pole

43. Isotherms are imaginary lines drawn on a map which connect places of equal:
A. atmospheric pressure
B. humidity
C. rainfall
D. temperature

44. Seasonal contrasts are maximum in:
A. Mid latitudes
B. Low latitudes
C. High latitudes
D. Subtropics

45. Lines drawn on a map through places having equal height above sea level are called:
A. Contours
B. Isobars
C. Isotherms
D. Isotopes

46. Which longitude is known as the Prime Meridian?
A. 0° longitude
B. 0° E longitude
C. 0° W longitude
D. 0° latitude

47. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in:
A. kms from the Equator
B. angles from the Equator
C. angles from the Poles
D. kms from Poles

48. Which of the following statements about meridians and equator is true?
A. Meridians are imaginary lines parallel to equator
B. Meridians and equator converge at the two poles
C. Meridians and equator never meet each other
D. Meridians are perpendicular to the equator

49. The longitude of a place on a clear night sky can be determined by measuring the angle which the:
A. Observer, Venus and Pole-star make among them
B. Pole-star makes with the Observer
C. Pole-star, Observer and Saturn make among them
D. Observer makes with the moon

50. The altitude at which the geo-stationary satellite is placed is:
A. 5,000 kms
B. 12,000 kms
C. 24,000 kms
D. 36,000 kms

World Geography 2

2008-09-17T10:11:00.001-07:00

1. Savanna grasslands are found in:
A. North America
B. Africa
C. Australia
D. East Asia

2. Which one of the following is associated with Argentina?
A. Pampas
B. Baobab
C. Slage
D. All the above

3. Which of the following regions of Siberia is most sparsely populated ?
A. Taiga region
B. Western Siberia
C. South Siberia
D. Tundra region of Northern Siberia

4. The largest reserve of ‘Sal’ forests is found in :
A. Nilgiri hills
B. Dehradun valley
C. The Aravalis
D. Eastern Peninsula

5. In which of the following continents is Atacama desert located?
A. North America
B. South America
C. Asia
D. Africa

6. Which can provide the shortest route between Moscow and San Francisco?
A. Over the North Pole
B. Over the South Pole
C. Via Canada
D. All are same

7. What will be the correct sequential order of the following four cities when a traveller passes through them from west to east almost along30° N latitude?
1.Cairo
2. Suez
3.Abadan
4. Quetta

A. 3,4,1,2
B. 4,1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3,4,2

8. The strait that separates USA and Russia where they are nearest is:
A. Hudson
B. Davis
C. Bering
D. Bosporus

9. The international air route from West Europe to East Asia passes through India because:
A. it is the shortest route
B. India is the only country in Asia providing refueling capacity
C. India is a busy centre situated between the two places
D. None of the above

10. Which one of the following provides the shortest air-route from New Delhi to Vancouver?
A. New Delhi- London- New York- Vancouver
B. New Delhi- Paris- New York- Vancouver
C. New Delhi- Bangkok- Tokyo- Vancouver
D. New Delhi- Moscow- London- Vancouver

11. The ‘Karakoram’ Highway connects :
A. India– Pakistan
B. India– China
C. China– Tibet
D. Pakistan– China

12. Water transportation has long been important because:
A. it is the fastest means of transportation
B. it is the cheapest means of moving heavy goods
C. goods can be delivered directly to factories
D. it is the fastest route

13. Straits and canals are important in water routes because they :
A. are some times as large as seas
B. have the best sea ports along their routes
C. are often shortcuts to larger bodies of water
D. they incur less expense

14. Between which countries is Florida Strait located?
A. USA and Panama
B. Cuba and Panama
C. Cuba and USA
D. Cuba and Bahamas

15. The Strait of Gibraltar separates Spain from:
A. Asia
B. Africa
C. North America
D. England

16. The strait which separates Asia from North America is the:
A. Strait of Gibraltar
B. Palk Strait
C. Strait of Malacca
D. Berring Strait

17. Which two of the following are connected by Palk Strait ?
A. India and Sri Lanka
B. North Korea and South Korea
C. Britain and France
D. None of the above

18. Sunda Strait separates:
A. Burma and Celebes
B. Java and Sumatra
C. Japan and Korea
D. Sicily and Italy

19. Shat-al-Arab demarcates the boundaries of:
A. Syria and Turkey
B. Iraq and Saudi Arabia
C. Iran and Afghanistan
D. Iraq and Iran

20. One of the following statements about the Suez Canal is not true. Which is it?
A. It is the shortest shipping route linking London, Marseilles and Colombo
B. The goods carried through the canal are varied and bulky. The goods are predominantly raw materials from the East and Far East and manufactured goods from the West
C. Canal tolls have in no way forced many shipping lines to revert to the Cape route
D. The canal shortens the shipping route between Southampton and Colombo by about 4,000miles

21. Which of the following statements about the Panama Canal is in correct ?
A. Over half of the shipping is domestic traffic between the east and west coasts of the USA
B. The canal has improved the trade of the Caribbean countries
C. The route’s greatest disadvantage is that it is seriously affected by fog making shipping dangerous
D. Goods handled are mainly oil, cotton, coffee, ores and manufactured goods

22. Both Canada and the United States are interested in the Arctic region because :
A. it has many minerals
B. it is the shortest route of Asia
C. it is rich in fur-bearing animals
D. of security reasons

23. North Atlantic Ocean route is an important international trade route because :
A. it is an old route
B. it is free from rough weather and therefore safe
C. it connects two industrialized regions
D. None of the above

24.The greatest water trade routes of the world are found on the:
A. Pacific Ocean
B. Atlantic Ocean
C. Gulf of Mexico
D. Indian Ocean

25. The Great Barrier of the coast of Australia provides for that country a/an:
A. abundant supply of minerals
B. semi-enclosed water way for about 120 miles
C. excellent fortification against attack on its major cities
D. connecting link between it and New Zealand

26. One feature of Chinese agriculture is:
A. almost complete absence of horse and cattle
B. non-dependence on rain
C. bonsai cultivation
D. heavy cattle and horse population

27. The lack of good quality land in Latin America is, to some extent, compensated for by:
A. very large coal reserve
B. huge oil reserve
C. very large areas of natural pastures
D. industrialization

28. The country which is the second largest tea producer after India is :
A. Russia
B. USA
C. China
D. Sri Lanka

29. World’s biggest dairy produce exporter is:
A. Denmark
B. New Zealand
C. Australia
D. West Germany

30. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A. Tundra Region – Lichen and Moses
B. Mediterranean Region – Groundnut and Potato
C. China Type Region – Tea and Sugar beat
D. West-European Region – Corn & Wheat

31. Which country is the world’s largest producer of wool?
A. New Zealand
B. Australia
C. South Africa
D. Brazil

32. Which of the following countries is the world’s largest producer of rubber?
A. Sri Lanka
B. Nigeria
C. India
D. Malaya

33. Australia is god for raising sheep because :
A. there is plenty of grass throughout the country
B. the warm northern lowlands are ideal for raising sheep
C. much of the country is dry and sheep need little water
D. its climate is god for rearing sheep

34. Australians are able to grow large amounts of wheat because:
A. the fields are large, flat and suited to the use of machinery
B. fields are far from the smoke-filled cities
C. they have a large labour supply
D. of plenty of rainfall

35. A reason why farming is difficult in Scandinavia is that:
A. the growing season is short
B. there is a small population
C. there is a lack of water
D. there is heavy rainfall

36. Cotton is grown in the Nile River Valley because:
A. the climate of Egypt is different from the rest of the Middle East
B. a warm climate and irrigated land are best for growing cotton
C. farmers in Egypt are richer than farmers in the rest of the region
D. its cold climate is ideal for growing cotton

37. Which of the following is the mainstay of the Brazilian economy?
A. Cocoa
B. Coffee
C. Tea
D. Tobacco

38. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Crop)	List II (Top Producer)
a. Olives	1. USA
b. Cotton	2. Italy
c. Tomato	3. Brazil
d. Coffee	4. China
	5. Indonesia

Codes :
A. a1, b4, c3, d2
B. a4, b1, c5, d3
C. a2, b1, c3, d4
D. a2, b4, c1, d3

39. Among the tobacco producing countries of the world, the position of India is next to:
A. US and China
B. Italy and France
C. Turkey and Egypt
D. Japan and Malaysia

40. Which country leads in shrimp (prawn) fishing ?
A. USA
B. Japan
C. India
D. USSR

41. The largest producers of fish in the world:
A. Norway
B. Alaska
C. Japan
D. Canada

42. The largest producer of Jute in the world is:
A. Bangladesh
B. China
C. India
D. Indonesia

43. Assertion (A): France produces the best wine in the world.
Reason (R) : There is a district in France called Champagne which produces first class grapes and these are used for the production of wine.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the reason for A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the reason for A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

44. The largest silver producer in the world is:
A. USA
B. Mexico
C. Guatemala
D. Bolivia

45. The chief importer of iron ore from India is:
A. Iran
B. Japan
C. South Korea
D. South Africa

46. The world’s largest production of Uranium comes from:
A. Katanga (Zaire)
B. Ore mountain (E. Germany)
C. Northern Canada
D. Jos Plateau (Nigeria)

47. The mineral resource which has made the Middle East of vital importance to the world today is:
A. oil
B. coal
C. tin
D. silver

48. The Congo has been an important section to Africa because:
A. it lies along the trade routes from north to south
B. its mines have copper and diamonds
C. it has the only oil processing plants in Africa
D. it is the main industrial area of Africa

49. The ‘Land of the Golden Fleece’ is a term used to describe:
A. South Africa
B. Australia
C. New Zealand
D. Tasmania

50. ‘Abadan’ is the famous oil town of:
A. Iraq
B. Iran
C. Jordan
D. Saudi Arabia

51. The ‘Vital Triangle’ of Europe is the important:
A. agricultural region of the Balkan countries
B. industrial region of Italy’s Po River
C. industrial area of the Ruhr Valley of Germany
D. rail road connection from France to Spain and Italy

52. Consider the two statements labelled Assertion ‘A’and Reason ‘R’ below:
Assertion (A): Italy, Switzerland, Sweden and Norway have abundant power resources.
Reason (R): They have the largest coal deposits in Europe.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

53. The most common mineral found on earth is :
A. Iron
B. Bauxite (aluminium)
C. Quartz
D. Tin

54. Which of the following is the most industrialised country?
A. Bangla Desh
B. Malaysia
C. Nepal
D. Singapore

55. Which is the largest city in China ?
A. Shanghai
B. Canton
C. Peking
D. Nanking

56. Which is the most densely populated territory in the world?
A. Pakistan
B. Macau
C. India
D. China

57. Which is the poorest country in Europe?
A. Albania
B. Belgium
C. Austria
D. Turkey

58. Which of these is the smallest country in Europe?
A. Vatican City
B. Monaco
C. Andorra
D. Luxembourg

59. Name the most populous city in the world:
A. Beijing
B. Tokyo
C. Shanghai
D. Mexico City

60. The largest of the Nordic countries is:
A. Norway
B. Finland
C. Sweden
D. Denmark

61. The most populous of the Nordic countries is:
A. Switzerland
B. Norway
C. Sweden
D. Denmark

62. The largest country in the world is:
A. India
B. China
C. Russia
D. USA

63. The UAE has Emirates, the largest and the richest of them is:
A. 6; Fujeirah
B. 7; Abu Dhabi
C. 8; Dubai
D. 4; Umm-al-Quwain

64. Which country would one select to go to get Ostrich, Platypus and Koala bear ?
A. Japan
B. Australia
C. Africa
D. Canada

65. Two lists are given below. Choose the alternative that gives the correct match of items

a. Eskimo	1. Canada
b. Oraon	2. Norway
c. Lapps	3. Russia
d. Gonds	4. India
	5. Africa

A. a1, b5, c3, d4
B. a1, b4, c3, d2
C. a1, b3, c4, d2
D. a1, b5, c2, d4

66. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
A. Khartoum is on the bank of the river Nile
B. Manila is on the bank of the river Yangtze Kiang
C. Tokyo is on the bank of the river Krishna
D. Eskimos live in the Arctic region of the world

67. Match the following:

a. Australia	1. Ottawa
b. Canada	2. Johannesberg
c. South Africa	3. Riyadh
d. Saudi Arabia	4. Canberra

A. a1, b2, c3, d4
B. a2, b3, c4, d1
C. a4, b1, c2, d3
D. a4, b1, c3, d2

68. Which country is not in Europe?
A. Holland
B. Belgium
C. Lebanon
D. Sweden

69. Which one of these countries is not in South America?
A. Peru
B. Paraguay
C. Mexico
D. Brazil

70. Which one of these countries is not in Scandinavia?
A. Denmark
B. Luxembourg
C. Sweden
D. Norway

71. Which country is not in Africa?
A. Zanzibar
B. Ghana
C. Trinidad
D. Sudan

72. Name the largest island in the world:
A. Greenland
B. Madagascar
C. Great Britain
D. New Guinea

73. Which is the largest Gulf in the world?
A. The Gulf of Mexico
B. The Gulf of Cambay
C. The Persian Gulf
D. The Strait of Hormuz

74. Name world’s highest dam:
A. Nurek, Russia
B. Rogunsky, Russia
C. Grand Dixence, Switzerland
D. Vaionst, Italy

75. Which of the following is the largest irrigation canal in the world?
A. Suez Canal
B. Indira Gandhi Canal
C. Panama Canal
D. Sirhind Canal

76. Which is the greatest Archipelago on the globe?
A. Indonesia
B. Japan
C. Philippines
D. West Indies

77. Japan experiences frequent earthquakes because it is located :
A. on the eastern coast of Asia
B. in the volcanic belt
C. amidst the ocean
D. on the meeting point of two plates of the earth’s crust

78. Which one of the following characteristics is common to New York and Mumbai?
A. Insular location
B. Film production
C. Mountainous coastal background
D. Administrative status

79. Havaian Island were discovered in 1778 by Legendary:
A. Captain James Cook
B. John Cabot
C. Christopher Columbus
D. Vasco de Gama

80. The continent whose southern tip lies closest to Antarctica is:
A. South America
B. Africa
C. Australia
D. Asia

World Geography 1

2008-09-16T03:07:00.000-07:00

1. What mountains traditionally serve a boundary separating Europe from Asia ?
A. The Alps
B. The Himalayas
C. The Caucasus
D. The Urals

2. In which continent some of its parts are over1500 miles from the sea and in which the hottest as well as the coldest climates of the world are to be found?
A. Asia
B. Europe
C. America
D. Australia

3. The continent whose southern tip lies closest to Antarctica is:
A. South America
B. Africa
C. Australia
D. Asia

4. The continent of Africa is divided into two parts by the:
A. Sahara Desert
B. Atlas Mountains
C. Congo River
D. Caucasus

5. Of the following, the country located entirely to the north of the Equator is:
A. Columbia
B. Ecuador
C. Bolivia
D. Venezuela

6. The South American country that borders every other country on that continent except Chile and Ecuador is:
A. Brazil
B. Argentina
C. Peru
D. Venezuela

7. Which of the following towns is situated at a higher altitude ?
A. Lhasa
B. Kathmandu
C. Gartole
D. Thimpu

8. There is a country which has an exceptionally long coast bordered by Soviet Union, Sweden and Finland, being the fifth largest country in Europe, and having the largest number of islands along its coast line, the country is:
A. Sweden
B. Norway
C. Poland
D. Denmark

9. New Zealand is:
A. a large ocean bay
B. an archipelago
C. two big islands : North Island, South Island separated by Cook Strait and several small islands
D. a large island

10. The island that is nearly an equilateral triangle (and is the newest province of Canada) with each side about 320 miles long and is heavily forested is:
A. Newfoundland
B. Alberta
C. Nova Scotia
D. Yukon Territory

11. The country more than half of which lies below sea level and which is the most densely populated countries in the world is :
A. Sweden
B. Norway
C. Netherlands
D. Kenya

12.Durand Line is the boundary of the two countries namely:
A. India and Pakistan
B. Pakistan and Afghanistan
C. Nepal and India
D. Nepal and China

13. 17th Parallel divides:
A. India and Pakistan
B. South and North America
C. North and South Korea
D. North and South Vietnam

14. The boundary line between India and Pakistan on their attaining independence in1947 is called:
A. Radcliff Line
B. Durand Line
C. McMahon Line
D. Maginot Line

15. Which line demarcates the boundary between India and China?
A. McMahon
C. Durand
B. Radcliffe
D. Mountbatten

16. The 38th parallel separates:
A. South Korea and North Korea
B. East Germany and West Germany
C. North Vietnam and South Vietnam
D. USA and Canada

17. A feature of the Mediterranean climate is:
A. frequent rain and fog
B. a long growing season
C. hillside farming
D. savanna vegetation

18. The deepest known point of the oceans is found in the:
A. Atlantic Ocean
B. Pacific Ocean
C. North sea
D. Panama Canal.

19. Which of the following is good evidence for concluding that glaciers once covered Canada?
A. Rocks containing melted ice have been found through out Canada
B. Radioactive decay of uranium in Canadian rocks has been measured
C. Scratches on surface rocks in Canada look like scratches made by known glaciers
D. Only glaciers could have formed the high Canadian mountains

20. Which one of the following canals connects Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean?
A. Suez canal
B. Panama canal
C. Kiel canal
D. None of the above

21. Grenada lies in the:
A. Caspian Sea
B. Indian Ocean
C. Caribbean
D. Pacific Ocean

22. New Moore Island is situated in the:
A. Bay of Bengal
B. Indian Ocean
C. Palk Strait
D. Arabian Sea

23. Falkland Islands are in:
A. Pacific
B. Antarctica
C. South Atlantic
D. North Atlantic

24. The interior regions of Eurasia have a large number of inland seas or lakes. Which one of the following touches the boundary of Iran?
A. Aral Sea
B. Lake-Balkash
C. Lake-Baikal
D. Caspian Sea

25. ‘Bermuda Triangle’ also known as “graveyard of ships”, is situated in:
A. Adriatic Sea
B. Beaufort Sea
C. Bering Sea
D. Sargaso Sea

26. The famous American river Mississippi flows into the Gulf known as :
A. the Gulf of Mexico
B. the Gulf of St Lawrence
C. the Gulf of Ob
D. None of these

27. The northern part of Europe is called:
A. Alpine region
B. Scandinavia
C. Benelux
D. New Zealand

28. Which Australian state is an island?
A. Victoria
B. Western Australia
C. Queensland
D. Tasmania

29. Which one of these countries has no coastline?
A. China
B. Hungary
C. Spain
D. Sweden

30 Which country is nearest to the South Pole?
A. Australia
B. New Zealand
C. Chile
D. South Africa

31. The basin of which one of the following rivers is the widest?
A. Amazon
B. Nile
C. Congo
D. Volga

32. Greenwich Mean Time is the local time of:
A. 180° longitude
B. 80° W longitude
C. 0° longitude
D. 80° E longitude

33. London is located at 0°, while Baghdad at 45° east. If a news is broadcast from London at 10 AM, at what time it will be heard at Baghdad?
A. 11.30 AM
B. 2.00 PM
C. 1.00 PM
D. 12.30 PM

34. The International Date Line is closest to which one of the following ?
A. Japan
B. Greenwich, England
C. Canary Islands
D. Aleutian Islands

35. If Amsterdam is X + 1, Montreal is X– 5, Tokyo is X+ 9 and Lisbon is X, X denotes:
A. GMT
B. the temperature as measured by the Kelvin scale to arrive at the temperature as measured by the Celsius scale
C. base from which height and depth from the sea-level is measured
D. the figure to be used from converting the Imperial System to the Metric System

36. Which of the following would be the right time when it is 5.30 pm in India ?
A. America –9 a.m.
B. Moscow–12 p.m.
C. Brazil –7 a.m.
D. London –12 noon

37. Which of the following is a block mountain?
A. Alps
B. Vosges
C. Rocky
D. Andes

38. Mountains are important in the Middle East because they:
A. are the source of rivers
B. are rich in minerals
C. block the cold winds
D. cause rainfall

39. Match the following:

a. Rift Valley	1. Apalachians
b. Fold	2. Vosges
c. Block	3. Red Sea
d. Volcanic Mountain	4. Fujiyama

A. a3, b1, c4, d2
B. a3, b2, c1, d4
C. a3, b1, c2, d4
D. a3, b4, c2, d1

40. The Baku region of Russia is known for:
A. aircraft industry
B. petroleum production
C. iron smelting
D. ship building

41. Which volcano in the Philippines erupted after remaining dormant for nearly six centuries?
A. Barren islands
B. Mt Fujiama
C. Mt Unzen
D. Mt Pinatubo

42. Identify which one of the following pairs is wrong?
A. Hurricane –Central United States
B. Trade winds – blow towards the equator
C. Doldrums –near the equator
D. New Moore Island– India

43. Tropical cyclone system occurring in Philippines, Japan and China sea is known as:
A. tornadoes
B. typhoons
C. thunder
D. hail storm

44.Great Britain is warmer than other places of the world at the same distance from the equator because of :
A. its nearness to water
B. its altitude
C. the warming effects of the Gulf Stream
D. its distance from water

45. Fog is common around New-found land Coast because:
A. icebergs melt around the coast
B. warm and cold currents meet
C. the rainfall is heavy
D. high tides cause storms

46. Which of the following cities is situated on the banks of River Tiber?
A. Tokyo
B. Rome
C. Peking
D. Berlin

47. Which of the following rivers has a "bird’s foot" delta?
A. The Amazon
B. The Brahmaputra
C. The Mississippi
D. The Nile

48. The main stream of the river Ganga which flows into Bangladesh beyond Farakka is known as:
A. Banganga
B. Brahmaputra
C. Padma
D. Suvarna Rekha

49. The two cities that are most similar in terms of climate are:
A. Vancouver – Paris
B. Capetown –Algiers
C. Montreal – Murmansk
D. Panama City– Tokyo

50. When there is summer in North Africa, South Africa will experience:
A. summer
B. winter
C. autumn
D. fall

Indian Geography 4

2008-09-14T22:51:00.000-07:00

Questionnaire No. 4

1. Tropic of Cancer passes through:
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Maharashtra

2. Indian Local Time is based on:
A. 80° E Longitude
B. 82.5 ° E Longitude
C. 110° E Longitude
D. 25° E Longitude

3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

List I	List II
a. Doda-Beta	1. Nilgiri
b. Makalu	2. Himalaya
c. Dhupgarh	3. Aravali
d. Guru-Shikhar	4. Satpura

Codes :
A. a2, b1, c3, d4
B. a3, b2, c1, d4
C. a1, b2, c4, d3
D. a4, b1, c2, d3

4. The Himalayan Rivers are perennial because:
A. they are fed by melting of snow during summer
B. they are from the mountains
C. the region gets rainfall through-out the year
D. they have many tributaries

5. The Himalayas are:
A. fold mountains
B. block mountains
C. volcanic mountain
D. fault blocks

6. Which of the following is the youngest mountain of India?
A. Aravalis
B. Himalayas
C. Nilgiris
D. Vindhyachal

7. The great mountain region of the Himalayas runs up to about _____ from Assam westwards.
A. 2,400 km
B. 1,500 km
C. 1,000 km
D. 4,324 km

8. Arrange the following mountain ranges in order of their locations from north to south?
1.Mount Kailash
2.DodaBeta
3.Amarkantak
4.Dhaulagiri

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,4,3,2
C. 1,3,4,2
D. 3,2,4,1

9. If the Himalaya is divided into four parts horizontally parallel to one another from south to north, the Trans- Himalaya region will be:
A. fourth part
B. third part
C. second part
D. first part

10. The ‘Blue Mountains’ is the epithet applicable to the :
A. Satpura mountains
B. Nilgiri mountains
C. Lushai hills
D. Aravali hills

11. The oldest mountain in India according to geographical history are:
A. Nilgiris
B. Satpura Range
C. Vindhyas
D. Aravali

12. Aravali ranges are an example of :
A. volcanic mountains
B. residual mountains
C. block mountains
D. folded mountains

13. The Gondwana hills are situated in:
A. Punjab
B. Jammu & Kashmir
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Nagaland

14. Cardamom Hills are located in:
A. Nilgiris
B. Kerala
C. Himalayas
D. Satpura

15. The air-distance between Delhi and Mumbai is:
A. 640 miles
B. 710 miles
C. 715 miles
D. 800 miles

16. Which of the following States of India has the longest coastline?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Maharashtra
C. Orissa
D. Tamil Nadu

17. The sea territory of India extends up to:
A. 4 nautical miles
B. 12 nautical miles
C. 200 nautical miles
D. 150 nautical miles

18. The Eastern Coast of India is known as:
A. Eastern Plateau
B. Bengal Coast
C. Coromandel Coast
D. Cyclonic Coast

19. The Palghat gap providing easy access between the west and the east coasts of India lies between :
A. the Nilgiris and the Cardamom Hills,
B. the Nilgiris and the Anamalai Hills
C. the Anamalai Hills and the Cardamom Hills
D. the Cardamom Hills and the Palni Hills

20. How is the climate in Western Coasts?
A. Arid
B. Dry
C. Tropical
D. Semi-arid

21. Which one of the following States has no sea opening?
A. Orissa
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Bihar
D. West Bengal

22. India has the longest land frontier with:
A. China
B. Pakistan
C. Nepal
D. Bangladesh

23. Zoji La is a Pass between:
A. Kashmir valley and Ladakh
B. Lahaul valley and Spiti
C. Chumbi valley and Sikkim
D. Arunachal Pradesh and Tibet

24. Duncan passage lies between:
A. Andaman and Nicobar islands
B. South and Middle Andaman islands
C. North and Middle Andaman
D. North and South Andaman islands

25. The landscape of Kutch is:
A. hilly
B. low-lying, flat and sandy plains
C. fertile lands having rich crops
D. only sands and nothing else

26. Which one of the following pairs of towns is located at the reference longitude for Indian Standard Time?
A. Allahabad – Visakhapattnam
B. Bangalore –Allahabad
C. Pondichery –Allahabad
D. Chennai –Allahabad

27. Which of the following States in India is land-locked ?
A. Orissa
B. West Bengal
C. Maharashtra
D. Haryana

28. Maharashtrian Plateau is made up of :
A. alluvial soil
B. coral reef
C. sandstone
D. lava

29. What is meant by Bay Islands?
A. Lakshadweep Islands
B. Kachha Tivu
C. Andaman & Nicobar Islands
D. Diego Garcia

30. Which three main islands combined are called the Greatest Andamans ?
A. North, East, West
B. Middle, South, West
C. North, Middle, South
D. East, West, South

31. The longest of the South Indian rivers is:
A. Mahanadi
B. Krishna
C. Godavari
D. Kaveri

32. Which of the following rivers flows between Vindhya ranges and Satpura?
A. Mahanadi
B. Narmada
C. Krishna
D. Godavari

33. The longest river of India is:
A. Brahmaputra
B. Yamuna
C. Ganga
D. Narmada

34. Which among the following is a west flowing river?
A. Cauveri
B. Krishna
C. Narmada
D. Godavari

35. Which of the following is distributary river?
A. Hoogly
B. Chambal
C. Kosi
D. Narmada

36. The source of the Indus river lies in the:
A. Mount Kailash region of Tibet
B. Shivalik Hils
C. Hindukush mountains
D. Chitral area

37. The Cauvery river flows into the:
A. Bay of Bengal
B. Arabian Sea
C. Palk Strait
D. Indian Ocean

38. Which of the following rivers of India flows through a rift valley?
A. Ravi
B. Cauvery
C. Sutlej
D. Narmada

39. Which one of the following regions is known for its network of tidal rivers?
A. Sunderbans
B. Saurashtra
C. Goa
D. Lakshadwep

40. Given below are four places situated on the banks of the Narmada:
1.Jabalpur
2. Mandla
3.Amarkantak
4. Bharuch

Which one of the following is the correct arrangement of the above four places from the source of the river to its mouth?
A. 2,1,4,3
B. 3,2,1,4
C. 4,3,2,1
D. 1,4,3,2

41. In terms of value, the State in India which leads in all-round production of minerals is:
A. Jharkhand
B. MP
C. Rajasthan
D. West Bengal

42. Which of the following is an inland drainage area?
A. Chilka region
B. Sambhar area
C. Ran of Kutch
D. Manasarovar lake

43. Which one of the following rivers flows towards the north?
A. Krishna
B. Chambal
C. Narbada
D. Tapti

44. ‘Tsangpo’ is the name of an Indian river which for some length flows outside India and it is :
A. Ganga
B. Indus
C. Brahmaputra
D. Sutlej

45. Which one of the following rivers flows towards the western side?
A. Godavari
B. Krishna
C. Mahanadi
D. Periyar

46. The river Damodar rises in the:
A. Rajasthan State
B. Gujarat State
C. Chhota Nagpur Plateau
D. Arunachal Pradesh hills

47. Which one of the following rivers takes its rise in the Plateau of Santhal?
A. Murali
B. Periyar
C. Mahanadi
D. Damodar

48. Which of the following groups of rivers fall in the ‘Bay of Bengal’?
A. Ganga, Brahmaputra, Hooghly
B. Ganga, Yamuna, Brahmaputra
C. Ganga, Yamuna, Gandak
D. Ganga, Yamuna, Godavari

49. Which of the following stream systems disects Aravali range?
A. Narmada, Sone
B. Banas, Luni
C. Betwa, Koina
D. Ganga, Saraswati

50. The upper mountain course of Brahmaputra is known as :
A. Tista
B. Brahmagiri
C. Tsang-po
D. Manas

51. ‘Sabarmati’ is the river that flows near a city namely:
A. Mumbai
B. Ahmedabad
C. Hyderabad
D. Vijayawada

52. The Indus river flows through one of the Indian States also and its name is:
A. Punjab
B. Rajasthan
C. Gujarat
D. Jammu and Kashmir

53. Chambal river flows through the States of:
A. Maharashtra, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
C. Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
D. Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Bihar

54. The major part of the Narmada river flows through the Indian State of :
A. Gujarat
B. Maharashtra
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Rajasthan

55. The Mahanadi river mostly cultivates the soil of an Indian State namely :
A. Orissa
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Maharashtra
D. Andhra Pradesh

56. The major part of _______ is cultivated by the Periyar river.
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Karnataka
C. Kerala
D. Maharashtra

57. The largest river delta of India is of :
A. Godavari
B. Mahanadi
C. Ganga
D. Kaveri

58. Which one of the following rivers does not form any delta at its mouth?
A. Cauveri
B. Mahanadi
C. Tapti
D. Godavari

59. Which one of the following rivers does not form a delta?
A. Periyar
B. Narmada
C. Krishna
D. Kaveri

60. An Indian river that does not form any delta is:
A. Krishna
B. Sind
C. Narmada
D. Cauvery

61. Which of the following rivers does not drain into the Arabian Sea ?
A. Tapti
B. Narmada
C. Godavari
D. Indus

62. Which of the following cities in India is not situated on the bank of river Ganga ?
A. Kanpur
B. Allahabad
C. Varanasi
D. Hardwar
E. Lucknow

63. The climate of India is of which of the following types?
A. Monsoonal
B. Mediterranean
C. Tropical
D. Savanna

64. On which of the following states, retreating monsoon has more effect?
A. West Bengal
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Orissa
D. Punjab

65. The world’s rainiest spot, Cherapunji (Masynram), is located in which State of India?
A. Assam
B. Meghalaya
C. Nagaland
D. Arunachal Pradesh

66. Why there is scanty rainfall in the Deccan plateau?
A. It is near the sea
B. It is in rain-shadow area
C. It is far away from the sea
D. None of these

67. Zinc is abundantly found in which State?
A. Rajasthan
B. Kerala
C. UP
D. Jharkhand

68. Tin yielding State in India is:
A. Rajasthan
B. Punjab
C. HP
D. Jharkhand

69. India’s ‘Thar’ desert covers nearly 55 per cent of the landscape of Rajasthan with nearly one -third of the state’s population residing on it. What is the annual rainfall in this region?
A. 10 to15 inches per year
B. 2 to 6inches per year
C. 5 to l0 inches per year
D. 10 to l2 inches per year

70. North India receives rain in winter because of:
A. retreating Monsoon
B. north east Monsoon
C. south west Monsoon
D. western disturbances

71. Mention the period of blowing of South-West monsoon winds in India :
A. all the year round
B. from October to January
C. from June to September
D. from April to July

72. Summer monsoon brings rain mostly to:
A. central India
B. hilly areas
C. corromondal coast
D. north-west and north-east India

73. Flood occurs frequently in the Northern Plains of India because of:
A. long spells of rainy weather
B. the presence of many large river courses
C. fluctuation of the level of the underground water table
D. uncertain and uneven occurrence of rain in the plains.

74. India has the largest reserves of ______ in the world.
A. uranium
B. plutonium
C. thorium
D. platinum

75. The winter rain in the coastal plains of Tamil Nadu is caused by:
A. south-west monsoons
B. intense land sea breezes
C. cyclonic winds
D. north-east monsoons

76. The driest part of India is:
A. Western Rajasthan
B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Gujarat
D. Madhya Pradesh

77. Which of the following places receives a minimum of 100 inches of rainfall:
A. Western ghats, Assam, Meghalaya
B. Western ghats, Assam, Karnataka
C. Western ghats, Assam, TamilNadu
D. Western ghats, WestBengal, Orissa

78. Leh receives rainfall which is:
A. quite heavy
B. moderate
C. very little
D. absolutely nil

79. In spite of abundant rainfall, India is said to be water thirsty land. Why ?
A. Quick evaporation of rainwater
B. Rapid run-off of water
C. Due to the concentration of rainfall over a few months
D. All of the above-mentioned

80. Which of the following factors do not influence the climate of India?
A. The Himalayas
B. The relief of our land
C. Long Coastal area
D. Nearness to Equator

81. Where does the belt of highest temperature lie in the month of March ?
A. North India
B. Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh
C. Southern and Central parts of Deccan plateau
D. None of these

82. Amritsar and Shimla have the same latitude yet Shimla is cooler than Amritsar because it:
A. comes under the influence of cold winds
B. lies north of Amritsar
C. receives a lot of snow
D. is at a higher elevation

83. The place which experiences minimum and maximum temperatures of –28.3° C and 15° C respectively is:
A. Kullu
B. Srinagar
C. Leh
D. Shimla

84. At which place will you find maximum sunlight in December?
A. Kanya Kumari
B. Pune
C. Calcutta
D. Leh

85. Chennai is hotter than Calcutta because :
A. there is no mountain near by it
B. Chennai is closer to the sea than Calcutta
C. Chennai is nearer to the Equator
D. Chennai has sandy region everywhere

86. Mumbai is colder in summer and warmer in winter because of :
A. absence of any mountain range nearby
B. its nearness to the sea
C. rainfall during both the seasons
D. nearness to the Equator

87. In which season is the frequency of tropical cyclones in the Bay of Bengal maximum?
A. During monsoon
B. After summer
C. During winter
D. During autumn

88. The State in India most adversely affected by tropical cyclones, is:
A. Assam
B. Orissa
C. Gujarat
D. Kerala

89. The natural region which holds the Indian sub-continent is :
A. Equatorial Climatic Region
B. Mediterranean
C. Monsoon
D. Hot Desert

90. The dominant vegetation of our country is:
A. Deciduous forests
B. Rain forests
C. Thorn shrub
D. Savannah

91. In which of the following areas the evergreen variety of the tropical main forests is found ?
A. Western ghats
B. Assam
C. West Bengal
D. Orissa
E. All of these

92. Which State has maximum area under forest?
A. UP
B. Assam
C. MP
D. Orissa

93. Forests cover more than 40percent of this State’s area. 75 percent of which is again mountainous. About 56 percent of its population is below poverty line and most of the population is ethnically, tribal. This State is:
A. MP
B. Orissa
C. Jharkhand
D. HP

94. Tidal forests are found in the delta region of the river :
A. Ganga
B. Yamuna
C. Krishna
D. Kosi

95. Percentage of forest area out of total reporting area of India is:
A. 21.3 percent
B. 26.7 percent
C. 3.3 percent
D. None of these

96. Area under forests is far below the required percentage in India because of:
A. long dry spell period
B. large area under cultivation due to large population
C. large area under plateau and hilly terrain
D. large extent of drought-prone area

97. Assertion (A): In India many acres of land are lost by soil erosion and floods each year.
Reason (R) : The afforestation measures are not strictly followed.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the reason for A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the reason for A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

98. The four States of north-east India which are reportedly having more than 50 percent of the total area under forest, are:
A. Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoramand Arunachal Pradesh
B. Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland
C. Meghalaya, Manipur, Tripuraand Nagaland
D. Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura

99. The expansion of Thar Desert can be checked:
A. by creating artificial rains
B. by digging canals
C. through afforestation
D. it can not be checked

100. The original inhabitants of India are believed to be of the ethnic type known as:
A. Negrito
B. Proto-Australoids
C. Mongoloids
D. Dravidians